Jeremiah Ames
Well-Known Member
In the theology of orthodox Trinitarian Christianity (bearing in mind that 99% of Christians adhere to the Nicene Creed), the answer would be "yes".
Jesus is understood to be the incarnation of the God of Abraham, the biblical creator who spoke through the prophets of the Tanakh and whose proper name (the Tetragrammaton) was revealed as YHWH to Moses on Mount Sinai, according to the account in Exodus.
An established exegetical paradigm can be seen in a number of verses in the New Testament, whereby the sacred author quotes or alludes to something in the Tanakh which originally referred to YHWH, and instead applies it to Jesus.
A great example of this practice is from Hebrews 1:10-12, which quotes Psalm 102:25-27.
The original text is a hymn addressed to YHWH (Adonai Elohim, the Lord God: "But you, O Lord [YHWH] are enthroned forever" [verse 12]) but the New Testament writer transposes it directly onto Jesus, and reads it as being about his eternal role as creator of the universe:
"8 But of the Son he says,
“Your throne, O God, is forever and ever,
and the righteous scepter is the scepter of your kingdom.
9 You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness;
therefore God, your God, has anointed you
with the oil of gladness beyond your companions.”
and the righteous scepter is the scepter of your kingdom.
9 You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness;
therefore God, your God, has anointed you
with the oil of gladness beyond your companions.”
10 And,
“In the beginning, Lord, you founded the earth,
and the heavens are the work of your hands;
11 they will perish, but you remain;
they will all wear out like clothing;
12 like a cloak you will roll them up,
and like clothing they will be changed.
But you are the same,
and your years will never end.”"
(Hebrews 1: 8-12)
In this way, a passage clearly and indisputably about YHWH (the Lord) in the original Hebrew Psalm, has been applied to Jesus, the incarnation of the 'Wisdom/Word' of God, whom the text describes as having pre-existed with the Father before the creation of the World, in the exact same terms as God (as "the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature" (Hebrews 1:3).
In the theology of orthodox Trinitarian Christianity (bearing in mind that 99% of Christians adhere to the Nicene Creed), the answer would be "yes".
i am going to throw out some ideas that come to me, after reading the history of “orthodox Trinitarian Christianity” coupled with my limited understanding of the Bible:
(just my musings, nothing to get to excited about)
Isaiah 29:13-16 comes to mind where the Lord speaks regarding people who follow the ‘teachings of men’. Even if the OT is of no relevance to Christianity, Jesus (aka the Lord) speaks the same concept in Matthew 15:8-9.
I cannot imagine a single person in the “99% of Christians” you speak of, would ever consider the Lord may possibly be talking to them.
What do you think?