namaskaram
here you are sadly missnformed , ..the eastern religious traditions have remained very much intact and in the most unafected by the years of colonial rule in just the same way that many traditions have remained unbroken even under the longer periods of Muslim influence and opression
What is your basis for this? Take the example I gave:
"The notion of ‘Hinduism’ is itself a Western-inspired abstraction, which until the nineteenth century bore little or no resemblance to the diversity of Indian religious belief and practice. The term ‘Hindoo’ is the Persian variant of the Sanskrit
sindhu , referring to the Indus river, and as such was used by the Persians to denote the people of that region...Although indigenous use of the term by Hindus themselves can be found as early as the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries, its usage was derivative of Persian Muslim influences and did not represent anything more than a distinction between ‘indigenous’ or ‘native’ and foreign (
mleccha). For instance, when Belgian Thierry Verhelst interviewed an Indian intellectual from Tamil Nadu he recorded the following interchange:
Q: Are you a Hindu?
A: No, I grew critical of it because of casteism ... Actually, you should not ask people
if they are Hindu. This does not mean much. If you ask them what their religion is, they
will say, ‘I belong to this caste.’
Indeed, it is clear that the term ‘Hindu’, even when used by the indigenous Indian, did not have the specifically religious connotations that it subsequently developed under Orientalist influences until the nineteenth century. Thus eighteenth-century references to ‘Hindoo’ Christians or ‘Hindoo’ Muslims were not uncommon"
King, R. (1999).
Orientalism and Religion: Post-Colonial Theory, India and the 'Mystic East'. Routledge.
Here is "an Indian Inellectual" trying to correct the Western misconception that Hinduism is a religion. This is in part because religion as it is understood today (in terms of doctrine, beliefs, and a phenomenon separate enough from socioeconomic & cultural phenomena to warrant a separate category) is
new.
, .....I can understand the missconceptions that much of the west hold when it comes to vedic Knowledge
Can you understand how Eastern commentators bear such little resemblance to modern interpreters until the East-West exchange reflected in translations, writings, and interpretations since well before Swami Vivekananda (who, by the way, was not only an ardent reader of Western philosophers but a freemason)?
as in the west we were reliant on the earlier sanskritologists
There are no such individuals. As for the translations, they were made by native Indians who were highly influenced by Western thinkers and we have their own texts as well as many other sources to show this. Before dismissing what you don't understand, try learning a bit first.
please note that I refered to vedic sciences
There exists no such thing. I am the first to recognize that "science" is a plurality, not singular, and that different sciences are indeed different. However, they are different because of what is studied, not because one is Vedic and another is Gothic, Celtic, Arabic, etc. Terms like "Greek science" or "Arabic science" are both inaccurate and intended to as comparative terms such that the state of natural philosophy, technological developments, and/or similar components of the sciences existed in past cultures. One of the foremost experts of Eastern traditions I ever studied under (Dr. Yang, Jwing-Ming) studied what he called "Western science" (obtaining his doctorate) believing that traditional Eastern beliefs would eventually be reconcilable with Eastern, but he never spoke of "Eastern science" or e.g., the circulation of Qi/Ki as an Eastern scientific notion (rather, he tried to explain it using Western terms, theory, and notions). As a previous member noted, this "Eastern science" vs. "Western" is a false dichotomy, The sciences are the sciences. I not only work as one, but have studied the development of the sciences as they have developed out of philosophies and more for the past ~3,000 years. I know how superior Chinese engineering was to anything before early modern science, how long it took for Western intellectuals after Christianity to reach the level of sophistication in proto-science obtained by the Greeks, the considerable contributions of Arabic knowledge, etc. This still means only that components of what we know identify with the sciences existed in other cultures, not that "science" did.
, ....... and also please note that I personaly use the title Sanatana Dharma , as I am not in the least attatched to the term Hindu as it has little relevance to me personaly however out of respect for those that do use the term I dont object when others use it , ...however I was completely specific in that I refered to Vedic Knowledge which stands on its own with or without the use of the title Hindu .
So you are aware of the influence of the processes studied by textual critics on the Vedas (and even more so orality) and the ways in which the modern tradition was shaped by interpretations that began in the 17th century (and by whom)?