”Abraham “OUR” father, according to the flesh” -Romans 4:1 Paul used the “OUR” or “WE” or “US” as first person PLURAL pronoun, and not the “YOU” as the second person PLURAL pronoun. The same thing in Romans 9:3 “MY” Paul used first person singular.
Either way, Rom 4:1 and 9:3, Paul was talking about his “brothers or kinsman” according to the flesh or as NIV puts it “those of my own race”. He was not talking about the Gentiles on either verse.
If he were referring to
ONLY his kinsmen, the first person pronoun "
MY" would have been inspired in
BOTH passages, right? And he certainly would not say Abraham was also the non-Israelite gentiles' physical father when he mentioned, "Abraham is the father of us all". You still have yet to address my request:
Can you find me an OT reference where all twelve tribes were
definitively referred to as Jews? Also, I would like for you to tell me how you interpret this passage:
Joh 7:35 Then the Jews said among themselves, "Where does He intend to go that we shall not find Him? Does He intend to go to the Dispersion among the Greeks and teach the Greeks?
Is there a reason why you are ignoring them?