AK4
Well-Known Member
Hog wash, read the scriptures and believe them!!! You dissapointment with this statement!!!
But thats for another thread
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When I read Mathew you paraphrased and your version sounds much worse than what mathew actually wrote.
I will not answer for my "mentor" , but *I* personally was not answering a question you gave. I was simply giving my intent for pointing out what has become quite the obvious to me.Once again as someone already addressed you before in this thread you dont answer the question presented before you! Its no different than your mentor.
Obviously since so many would rather throw out logic to embrace the following:Truth is harsh.
It is not a belief.. it is a *fact* and not widely acknowledged because to accept that we have free will means that we are responsible for the state of the world; and G.d forbid we actually take responsibility for ourselves (in other words you are saying that G.d is the guilty party). Read Isaiah.. the creation process is not over; even Jesus acknowledged this (Matthew 5: 17-18).And your belief in free will show more of your ignorance.
What planet did I end up on? The topic is "Something bad Jesus did".. you and others just do not like that I am able to actually see the logic when it comes to the Scriptures because it means that the state of your life is more in your hands than you would like to admit. Free will being hogwash? Seriously?You want to talk about Jesus start another thread. We are talking bout in this thread something else.
IF_u_knew;1432298 Read Isaiah.. the creation process is not over; even Jesus acknowledged this (Matthew 5: 17-18). quote said:Hi Katie, it's interesting that you have mentioned above, now that I have just finished reading a biography of Albert Einstein.
When someone asked him if he believed in God, his answer was that all his life was trying to catch God at His work of Creation.
It does mean that the process of Creation is indeed not over, as Einstein the greatest of all Scientists in the History of the world attested to that.
Ben:
IF_u_knew;1432298 Read Isaiah.. the creation process is not over; even Jesus acknowledged this (Matthew 5: 17-18). quote said:Hi Katie, it's interesting that you have mentioned the above, now that I have just finished reading a biography of Albert Einstein.
When someone asked him if he believed in God, his answer was that all his life was trying to catch God at His work of Creation.
It does mean that the process of Creation is indeed not over, as Einstein the greatest of all Scientists in the History of the world attested to that.
Ben:
Interesting...thought perhaps he meant he was trying to find evidence of god in the creation, not trying to find god in the act of creating.
...Back to the OP...
Bailey proposes that it indeed was a test for the woman, but also he adds that the disciples were being taught an important lesson.
Ben: What this Bailey proposes is nothing new. It's in the heart of every Christian, even of those who have not read his book. A test! Why was the test bound by the reaction of the disciples? If they had not complained, that woman would have had some more miles to walk in her torment.
In short, Jesus does embarrass/humiliate this women, but in the end praises her for her great faith. Within this context of verses also lies an important lesson for his disciples; being that their very prejudices are laid out in front of them by Jesus to their own shame.
Ben: If that was not embarrassment or humiliation, Jesus had a weird way to uplift someone who needed his help. That praising of her faith, I see as the soothing over the wound he had opened. And for the lesson to his disciples, did he follow up on the whys and becauses? I didn't find it. "Their prejudices! Now, you lost me. Did the disciples and Jews in general have any prejudice about Gentiles being considered as dogs? I have never found a Jew in the whole of my life to consider Gentiles as dogs. Don't you think the Gospel writer was reflecting a Gentile attitude towards the Jews?
Whom was Jesus speaking to when he warned them not to throw what is holy to the dogs or their pearls before swine in Matthew 7:6? If you say that they were the disciples, so the attitude was a Gentile one towards the Jews. I you believe as I do, that it was to the crowds of Jews who were listening to him, so the attitude was his.You take your pick.
Given Jesus's record of compassion/sympathy for all who suffer, the woman recognizes him as both "Lord" and the "Son of David" a Messianic title.
Ben: The expression "son of David" is not a Messianic title in this context because it's very common to be used in Hebrew by anyone who is in a position to receive an extraordinary favor from another. The request is usually preceeded in Hebrew by "ben-David" in opposite to "ben-adam."
Jesus wasn't really saying that his ministry was just to the Jews. His very actions "speak" otherwise. This entire scene was not bad at all, but rather a very important lesson of what Jesus came to do. To save all of us.
Ben: If Jesus did not mean that his ministry was just to the Jews, you are digging another contradiction in the NT, because it's very clear in Matthew 15:24 that it was
ONLY to the House of Israel. I understand your attempt to re-write the text. After all, that's the NT credibility in question. "To save all of us!" Yes, Jesus himself said to the Samatitan woman that salvation was of the Jews in John 4:22, but not on an individual basis. Rather in the collective context of the People of Israel.
Interesting...thought perhaps he meant he was trying to find evidence of god in the creation, not trying to find god in the act of creating.
I believe he was trying to find the Author of the evidences he already had in the things created. Isn't it what life is all about, to try to understand the essence of God?
Ben
Hi Katie, it's interesting that you have mentioned above, now that I have just finished reading a biography of Albert Einstein.
When someone asked him if he believed in God, his answer was that all his life was trying to catch God at His work of Creation.
It does mean that the process of Creation is indeed not over, as Einstein the greatest of all Scientists in the History of the world attested to that.
Ben:
It is not a belief.. it is a *fact* and not widely acknowledged because to accept that we have free will means that we are responsible for the state of the world; and G.d forbid we actually take responsibility for ourselves (in other words you are saying that G.d is the guilty party). Read Isaiah.. the creation process is not over; even Jesus acknowledged this (Matthew 5: 17-18).
What planet did I end up on? The topic is "Something bad Jesus did".. you and others just do not like that I am able to actually see the logic when it comes to the Scriptures because it means that the state of your life is more in your hands than you would like to admit. Free will being hogwash? Seriously?
I agree with this... and I do not see how it interferes with free will. It is only to say that we can not control our circumstances, but we can control how we respond to those circumstances... remember, we are individuals but we are also a collective. Since the first action, it has always been a matter of reaction. That does not negate our free will and it is in this realization.. that we are collective... that we come to see the truly profound effect of our reactions and how they may impact the circumstance of the whole. What Einstein is in essence saying is that we deal in reality, not the mystical.“That is hardly a new thought (the German philosopher Arthur Schopenhauer said), as Einstein paraphrased it, that a human can very well DO what he wants, but cannot WILL what he wants.”
Job had a very profound experience. It was this: that in actuality, we are more in control than we realized. It is evidenced in the following verses:We are held accountable, but God takes responsiblity of His creation. No God is not guilty of ANY wrong doing. Was Job wrong when He knew God was responsible for what was happening to Him? Did he accused God of wrong doing? NO. God is responsible, we are accountable. All is of God. Why cant people just believe His Word?!! God creates evil. It says so plainly in His Word. Do people believe it? NO!
Did jesus exist?
that much is verifiable not only through the Bible, but through non-Christian historical records of the same time period, both Jewish and Roman.
Ben: What this Bailey proposes is nothing new. It's in the heart of every Christian, even of those who have not read his book. A test! Why was the test bound by the reaction of the disciples? If they had not complained, that woman would have had some more miles to walk in her torment.[endQuote]
I don't really understand what your asking when you ask "Why was the test bound by the reaction of the disciples?" Jesus ministry was focused on training these men (the disciples) to continue what he had been teaching and preaching during the time he was with them. I don't agree that the disciples relieved that woman of her situation by pointing her out to Jesus in exasperation. I think they were really trying to get rid of her, hence their demand in Luke 15:23. I don't know if that is a worthy answer to your question or not. Please let me know : )
Ben: If that was not embarrassment or humiliation, Jesus had a weird way to uplift someone who needed his help. That praising of her faith, I see as the soothing over the wound he had opened. And for the lesson to his disciples, did he follow up on the whys and becauses? I didn't find it. "Their prejudices! Now, you lost me. Did the disciples and Jews in general have any prejudice about Gentiles being considered as dogs? I have never found a Jew in the whole of my life to consider Gentiles as dogs. Don't you think the Gospel writer was reflecting a Gentile attitude towards the Jews?[endQuote]As far as your question goes did Jesus ever follow up the whys and becauses? I don't think he needed to. During that time period in the Middle East women were not held in high esteem. Self-respecting men did not talk to women in public let alone foriegn women. Bailey is saying in his commentary that Jesus had crossed a huge culteral barrier by breaking his silence to even talk to the woman. He had done this on other occasions as well (i.e. the woman at the well, the woman caught in adultery ready to be stoned). Bailey sets up the situation in which Jesus speaks to this woman, shows where his diciples prejudices lead to, than almost sets the woman up on a pedistal(sp?) as a pillar of great faith. Bailey puts the whole situation like this:
"Jesus is irritated by the diciples attitude regarding women and Gentiles. The woman's love for her daughter and her confidence in him impress Jesus. He decides to use the occasion to help her and challenge the deeply rooted prejudices in the hearts of his disciples. In the process he gives the woman a chance to expose the depth of her courage and faith." pg 222 Jesus through Middle Eastern Eyes.
I think I'm still missing details, but if you don't understand what Bailey is trying to say let me know, I'll try to further explain it, if i can.
Ben: The expression "son of David" is not a Messianic title in this context because it's very common to be used in Hebrew by anyone who is in a position to receive an extraordinary favor from another. The request is usually preceeded in Hebrew by "ben-David" in opposite to "ben-adam."[endQuote]
She was a Syro-Phoenician. I don't think she would have been talking in Hebrew though. Possibly Aramaic or Greek?
Ben: If Jesus did not mean that his ministry was just to the Jews, you are digging another contradiction in the NT, because it's very clear in Matthew 15:24 that it was
ONLY to the House of Israel. I understand your attempt to re-write the text. After all, that's the NT credibility in question. "To save all of us!" Yes, Jesus himself said to the Samatitan woman that salvation was of the Jews in John 4:22, but not on an individual basis. Rather in the collective context of the People of Israel.[endQuote]
If Jesus ministry was only to the House of Israel, why did he heal Gentiles as well? Perhaps Jesus didn't really mean that in Matt 15:24, was he playing to once again to the prejudices of his disciples? In esssence he was setting the disiples up the whole time. The guys (the disciples) still believed that Jesus WAS ONLY for the Jews. Jesus here in manner says "NOPE" and goes to show them otherwise by not only healing the woman's daughter, but relieves the woman's pain of watching her go through her daughter's agony.
When Jesus said "salvation was of the Jews" I understand that to mean that Jesus(being salvation) was "out of" or "from" the Jews. Could you clarify further how you understand it? : )
I was wondering, could you share this with me? The reason I ask is that the only evidence I have seen is the writings of Josephus.. whose existence is as much in question as well, from the research I have done. Of course, I could be wrong; which is why I ask. I do see a Jeshua mentioned in the Tanakh, but he was from the line of the Levites. Other than that, all I have been able to go on is the NT... and that version of Jesus only fits one person from that time period, though, he was an Egyptian and not actually named Jesus.