There are two aspects here I disagree with.
The first is that Hawking did justify his claim. In his brief answer to the question, he explained why he held his position. He compared the brain to a computer, and implied that it's no more reasonable to assume that a human lives on after the destruction of the human brain, than it is for a computer or an operating system to live on after the destruction of the computer.
Memories, personality, and the ability to be conscious are all dependent on a functioning brain, and this is able to be demonstrated and unfortunately commonly is in hospitals. Damage to the brain, either physically or through blood deprivation or some other issue, can temporarily or permanently reduce or eliminate any aspect of consciousness, personality, and memories. Chemicals such as helpful or harmful drugs and other things can completely change a person's subjective and objective mental states. The proposition that, there exists something intangible, immeasurable, undetectable, and essentially magical that transcends a destroyed body despite all of this evidence that all of these aspects are brain-dependent, is the claim that requires substantial proof to remain valid.
All any of the above proves is that the brain needs to be operational in order for the brain to be conscious. This whole argument is circular in that it presupposes a lack of an afterlife (or otherlife) in order to demonstrate that there is no afterlife:
The unspoken variable in this equation is "if we assume that this, physical, existence is all there is,..." and proceeds from there.
The second issue is that knowledge never works like you describe in practice, nor should it. Just because something is not falsifiable does not mean that all parties should remain neutrally agnostic on the matter.
Of course it does. If the only demonstrable position is "we don't know", then "we don't know" is the only reasonable position. Not saying we should quit looking for other answers, just that until we come up with proof one way or the other, it's ridiculous to consider any other position as proven, or even more probable.
There are three possibilities regarding the goddess Athena; she exists, she doesn't exist, or we don't know.
No, there are several other possibilities:
Metaphorically:
She's meant to represent a principle, in which case she exists symbolically.
Mythical:
Her mythical persona can be traced back to some actual, human female warrior or chieftain whose story is lost in pre-history (or just lost for whatever reason) who's memory survived in legend and eventually evolved into a cultural deity.
Actual:
If there is a God, and one of the attributes we assign to God is omnipotence, then the idea that IT could manifest ITself as a feminine warrior in order to interact with a particular culture is just a given.
The same is true for vampires; they exist, they don't exist, we don't know.
Vampires are supposed to be physical beings operating in the realm of the observable. If there had been humanoid beings among us with super-human powers sucking people's blood for the last several thousand years, they would have left a few clues.
Once evidence begins to pile onto one side,
Pile is a good choice of words in this case.
the ball is in the court of the other party to prove that their claim remains legitimate.
I think you're still confused about who the "other party" is, you're acting as if the only qualified participants for these kinds of debates are people who are making definite claims one way or the other. A nuetral stance, one that asks for justification from both parties making definite claims is at least as valid as the other 2.
Look, Lyn, all we ever wind up arguing about in these types of debates is what the rules for the arguments should be. I'm not going to debate according to the rules you keep assigning to these arguments because to me, they don't make sense: "someone who says 'no' doesn't have to prove 'no' but anyone who asks 'why no" has to prove "yes"?
Granted, he probably shouldn't have made the remark about being afraid of the dark, because there are a variety of reasons for believing in an afterlife, but apart from that, his points are fair and reasonable.
I don't think it should be put aside. I think it gives us a pretty clear indication of bias, and considering that he presents this statement as a summation of his argument, IMO it makes every other aspect of his argument suspect.