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I see there being a big difference. The right is protected so long as a well-regulated militia is necessary to preserve the security of a free-state. We don't need "well regulated militias" anymore, as we have local, state, and federal police. We have state military and national military. We have the risk of a tyrannical government taking over and removing the constitution. So, I don't think the 2nd Amendment applies anymore.In light of recent SCOTUS rulings:
What's the difference between:"In the twenty-first century, the [Second] amendment has been subjected to renewed academic inquiry and judicial interest.[11] In District of Columbia v. Heller (2008), the Supreme Court handed down a landmark decision that held the amendment protects an individual right to possess and carry firearms.[12][13] In McDonald v. Chicago (2010), the Court clarified its earlier decisions that limited the amendment's impact to a restriction on the federal government, expressly holding that the Fourteenth Amendment applies the Second Amendment to state and local governments to the same extent that the Second Amendment applies to the federal government.[14] In Caetano v. Massachusetts (2016), the Supreme Court reiterated its earlier rulings that "the Second Amendment extends, prima facie, to all instruments that constitute bearable arms, even those that were not in existence at the time of the founding" and that its protection is not limited to "only those weapons useful in warfare"
Source: Wikipedia
And"A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."
I ask because "the people" today who choose to keep and bear arms are neither part of a well regulated militia nor any kind of a militia whatsoever, yet the SCOTUS ruling protects them. As I see it, there is no difference between the two versions."The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."
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What do you say against the opinion that these forces are precisely why an armed militia might be necessary? The Battle of Athens, which I referenced, involved civilian use of arms against a corrupt sheriff and police force, as they attempted to rig the local elections.We don't need "well regulated militias" anymore, as we have local, state, and federal police. We have state military and national military.
If so, then militias should be constructed and every gun owner be made an active member. Lacking that, there's no reason for the amendment.What do you say against the opinion that these forces are precisely why an armed militia might be necessary? The Battle of Athens, which I referenced, involved civilian use of arms against a corrupt sheriff and police force, as they attempted to rig the local elections.
Did anyone?Did someone suggest losing the constitutional right to maintain well regulated militias?
Intentions behind a creation are not always realized.As Stevens points out in Heller:
In 1901 the President revitalized the militia by creating “‘the National Guard of the several States,’” Perpich, 496 U. S., at 341, and nn. 9–10; meanwhile, the dominant understanding of the Second Amendment’s inapplicability to private gun ownership continued well into the 20th century. The first two federal laws directly restricting civilian use and possession of firearms--the 1927 Act prohibiting mail delivery of “pistols, revolvers, and other firearms capable of being concealed on the person,” Ch. 75, 44 Stat. 1059, and the 1934 Act prohibiting the possession of sawed-off shotguns and machine guns—were enacted over minor Second Amendment objections dismissed by the vast majority of the legislators who participated in the debates.37
https://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/07pdf/07-290.pdf
And that was the bizarre ruling by the SCOTUS that especially was pushed by Scalia. And an interview of Scalia after this decision was even more bizarre when he admitted he would have to think about whether a hand-held ground-to-air missile that could bring down jetliners should also be allowed in civilian hands.I ask because "the people" today who choose to keep and bear arms are neither part of a well regulated militia nor any kind of a militia whatsoever, yet the SCOTUS ruling protects them. As I see it, there is no difference between the two versions.
In light of recent SCOTUS rulings:
What's the difference between:"In the twenty-first century, the [Second] amendment has been subjected to renewed academic inquiry and judicial interest.[11] In District of Columbia v. Heller (2008), the Supreme Court handed down a landmark decision that held the amendment protects an individual right to possess and carry firearms.[12][13] In McDonald v. Chicago (2010), the Court clarified its earlier decisions that limited the amendment's impact to a restriction on the federal government, expressly holding that the Fourteenth Amendment applies the Second Amendment to state and local governments to the same extent that the Second Amendment applies to the federal government.[14] In Caetano v. Massachusetts (2016), the Supreme Court reiterated its earlier rulings that "the Second Amendment extends, prima facie, to all instruments that constitute bearable arms, even those that were not in existence at the time of the founding" and that its protection is not limited to "only those weapons useful in warfare"
Source: Wikipedia
And"A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."
I ask because "the people" today who choose to keep and bear arms are neither part of a well regulated militia nor any kind of a militia whatsoever, yet the SCOTUS ruling protects them. As I see it, there is no difference between the two versions."The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."
.
The Consitution gives Congress the power over discipline of the militia. With that in mind, do you really want to argue that every citizen - including yourself - is a member of the militia (and thereby subject to "discipline" by Congress)?There is no difference, functionally. A militia is made up of the populace; so if a situation occurs such that a militia is necessary, see the seige of athens, the people have to have access to arms.
That was 70 years ago. So, I don't find it relevant.What do you say against the opinion that these forces are precisely why an armed militia might be necessary? The Battle of Athens, which I referenced, involved civilian use of arms against a corrupt sheriff and police force, as they attempted to rig the local elections.
More relevant would be urban strife which erupts periodically.That was 70 years ago. So, I don't find it relevant.
In a situation like that, I would think it better that the rioters not have guns.More relevant would be urban strife which erupts periodically.
One such even here was when students rioted over something (a football game loss, as I recall), & began beating & robbing people, destroying property, & setting at least one fire. The cops stayed away. The fire dept abandoned a truck there. Government is often either useless in the face of or the perpetrator of crimes. So the right to defend myself with deadly force against an unprovoked attack is one I won't give up.
I agree.In a situation like that, I would think it better that the rioters not have guns.
In light of recent SCOTUS rulings:
What's the difference between:"In the twenty-first century, the [Second] amendment has been subjected to renewed academic inquiry and judicial interest.[11] In District of Columbia v. Heller (2008), the Supreme Court handed down a landmark decision that held the amendment protects an individual right to possess and carry firearms.[12][13] In McDonald v. Chicago (2010), the Court clarified its earlier decisions that limited the amendment's impact to a restriction on the federal government, expressly holding that the Fourteenth Amendment applies the Second Amendment to state and local governments to the same extent that the Second Amendment applies to the federal government.[14] In Caetano v. Massachusetts (2016), the Supreme Court reiterated its earlier rulings that "the Second Amendment extends, prima facie, to all instruments that constitute bearable arms, even those that were not in existence at the time of the founding" and that its protection is not limited to "only those weapons useful in warfare"
Source: Wikipedia
And"A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."
I ask because "the people" today who choose to keep and bear arms are neither part of a well regulated militia nor any kind of a militia whatsoever, yet the SCOTUS ruling protects them. As I see it, there is no difference between the two versions."The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."
.
Aye, it's an odd argument that the 2nd of only 10 amendments in the Bill Of RightsI'm not sure why the Second Amendment would even be necessary if it was just referring to the military or the National Guard. Even countries where the citizens don't have any rights at all would still have the "right" to arm their own military forces. Every sovereign nation has such a right, even if it's not specifically delineated in the law or constitution. The Constitution already gives Congress the power to raise armies, which would imply the right to provide them with weapons.
"[A] bill of rights is what the people are entitled to against every government on earth, general or particular, and what no just government should refuse."
- Thomas Jefferson, December 20, 1787
In the summer of 1787, delegates from the 13 states convened in Philadelphia and drafted a remarkable blueprint for self-government -- the Constitution of the United States. The first draft set up a system of checks and balances that included a strong executive branch, a representative legislature and a federal judiciary.
The Constitution was remarkable, but deeply flawed. For one thing, it did not include a specific declaration - or bill - of individual rights. It specified what the government could do but did not say what it could not do. For another, it did not apply to everyone. The "consent of the governed" meant propertied white men only.
The absence of a "bill of rights" turned out to be an obstacle to the Constitution's ratification by the states. It would take four more years of intense debate before the new government's form would be resolved. The Federalists opposed including a bill of rights on the ground that it was unnecessary. The Anti-Federalists, who were afraid of a strong centralized government, refused to support the Constitution without one.
In the end, popular sentiment was decisive. Recently freed from the despotic English monarchy, the American people wanted strong guarantees that the new government would not trample upon their newly won freedoms of speech, press and religion, nor upon their right to be free from warrantless searches and seizures. So, the Constitution's framers heeded Thomas Jefferson who argued: "A bill of rights is what the people are entitled to against every government on earth, general or particular, and what no just government should refuse, or rest on inference."
The American Bill of Rights, inspired by Jefferson and drafted by James Madison, was adopted, and in 1791 the Constitution's first ten amendments became the law of the land.
Considering how relatively frequent riots are in the USA, that simply doesn't hold true. Especially considering many of those riots are started by shootings.I agree.
But if everyone is armed, it's hard to hold a riot.
Rioters proceed without expecting to be shot.Considering how relatively frequent riots are in the USA, that simply doesn't hold true. Especially considering many of those riots are started by shootings.