In order for you to hold the objection of omnibenevolence, you yourself would have to be omniscient. I mean, assuming that God had a divine purpose, and his divine purpose must be carried out for the greater good, certain things has to happen to ensure this; a certain criteria has to be met in order for this to occur. So if the suffering that God allows happens for a greater good, a good that you cannot even BEGIN to understand or see with your finite knowledge and presence, then you can't logically say that suffering is incompatible with an ominibenevolent being.
(N.B. I'll be dealing with each objection separately. This is the first rebuttal: The Problem of Evil. I also have other objections to Plantinga's MOA, and I will be introducing them after this current crop.)
No, Im sorry but I dont agree with any of that. If you attest to the truth of propositions such as 2 + 2 = 4, or a circle is not a square, then you must accept that if God the Creator is all goodness then there can be no badness (P or not-P). And if you dont need to be omniscient in order to find a proposition intelligible then why cant the same privilege be extended to me? The greater good argument re-states and confirms the contradiction: which is where you require suffering to overcome or alleviate suffering. Makes no sense! And again, my finitude or lack of greatness doesnt prevent me from identifying contradictions, since even God is subject to the laws of thought.
For example, suppose a 7 year old girl was sexually molested by her father. Now suppose God knew that the only way the girl was going to love and accept him was if she got molested, so God allowed the girl to get molested. Now of course, God will discipline her father at whatever time he sees fit, but it is the salvation of the girl that is more important/the greater good that God is looking for. Christians believe that the joys and pleasures of heaven will filled with so much euphoria that all of the pain and suffering that we've suffered on earth, we will be willing to undergo these things 10x over if we knew what awaited us in heaven.
So take any "suffering" X; How do you know that God doesn't have morally sufficient reasons for allowing this act? I really would like you to answer this question. I mean, take any suffering of X, it can be personal or otherwise...how do you know that God doesn't have morally sufficient reasons to allow it to happen? Take any patient that is suffering from terminal cancer. How do you know that this person didn't murder person 30 years ago, and no one knew about the murder but God...no one knew this person committed this crime but God...and God choose to give this person cancer as an act of judgement. But all you see is the suffering that the man is in...you don't know the reason behind it.
With respect the case being made for a morally sufficient reason is a hopeless one that leads into the realms of contradictory nonsense. In fact this argument is the only one that has ever has Prof Craig (whom I respect) on the ropes and with nowhere to go and finally having to resort to an argument from ignorance. To say God had a morally sufficient reason for causing/allowing evil and suffering makes as much sense as saying God had a logically sufficient reason for enabling married men to be bachelors. Also I see you are appealing to a principle restuitive justice. There are a number of things to be said about that. First, by definition that can only take place after the fact. Second, what is done cannot be undone, and so the suffering that took place proves the contradiction and blots Gods copy book for ever. Third, there is no suffering in heaven, demonstrating that an existence without suffering is logically possible. Fourth, you actually give an example of vengeance, which in my book is the opposite of forgiveness and contrary to a God of mercy; so once more proving the contradiction.
I mean, on a personal and emotional note, to be quite honest, I've been a bit of a hypochondriac these past few years. I keep thinking that I am destined for pancreatic cancer, one of the worse (if the the worse) cancers you can possibly have.
Now suppose my faith is very very strong with the Lord, and I am diagnosed with pancreatic cancer. Now suppose I touch a lot of people with the story of my illness AND my faith. Now suppose my story and faith allows 10 people in Montana to be converted and saved. Now suppose God used ME as a token to get those people saved.
Now suppose this scenario is actually true, and the reasons I was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer is so that 10 people would be saved, and God used me in a way to ensure this...if this was to happen, I would BE HONORED. I would be freakin honored, because the ALMIGHTY GOD used ME (notice the emphasis on "me").
You can't make an omelet without breaking a few eggs; if God was to appear to me in divine revelation or in the afterlife and say to me "I used you for the conversion of 10 newly converted apostles in Montana. I knew that you would remain faithful to me despite your ailment....". That would make things all the worthwhile, in my opinion.
I think the problem of evil fails because those that use it just doesn't have the knowledge and foresight to make judgments on the actions (or lack thereof) of an Almighty God. As long as morally sufficient reasons are even POSSIBLE, then the argument fails
I can even grant you God having a reason for inflicting evil and suffering, but that does not, Im afraid, overturn the contradiction. For whatever the reason, the fact remains that people have suffered and are suffering. Any defence you make on Gods behalf must either weaken him, for example by saying X circumstances compelled him to cause/allow suffering, or you simply demonstrate his causal complicity, which confirms the inconsistency in either case, demonstrating his inability or his unwillingness to prevent suffering.