Call_of_the_Wild
Well-Known Member
If the action never began then it never happened.
Well, if a timeless cause is unnecessary, then the past is eternal and time never began, so therefore, it never happened. Right back to infinite regress.
Its about defining what is and what isn't. For there to be such an action as "sitting in a chair" or what have you, temporal existence is required. How does a 1 dimensional creature sit in a chair?
Once again, it was just an analogy. That is not the issue.
The part where you seem to think that we can have a "before" time. Causual or not. You seem to think that there was a "time" where "time" didn't exist. Just because you say 'in this example time doesn't exist" doesn't make it applicable.
What you need to do (and so far have failed to do) is to explain why my analogy doesn't work without using the concept of temporality where it need not be applied. In the analogy there is no time "before" time. You cannot identify a prior point in the analogy, and if time did exist in the analogy, you should be able to identify a prior point. But you can't, can you?
"I have oranges in a bowl sitting on a table. but there is no table. Checkmate atheists" is more or less the amount of coherency within your analogy.
This makes no sense.
That is not even close in comparison with the analogy.
Existence in any way that we know is dependent upon temporal factors.
And this is only true AFTER time began to exist. But we are talking about the origins of time itself, and there ARE no temporal factors in this regard.
In your example you proposed that you existed in a chair and the girl was not there correct? Then at some point the girl was there? Correct? This is impossible and folly if you are without time.
The girl represents the first CHANGE. In the example, I have been sitting in a chair for eternity. I never moved. I am sitting perfectly still. The concept of temporal becoming does not exist.
Now, if a girl POPS in to being by my side, then EVERYTHING becomes temporal. Time began with the existence of the girl, because that is the first change. But there is no temporal "prior" to the girl. There were no moments which lead to the girl popping in to being. So when the girl pops in to being, time began, and I (the person sitting in the chair) went from an atemporal state, to a temporal state.
Now if the argument is that God was in a atemporal state, created the world, but REMAINED in an atemporal state, then you are right, that is quite absurd. But God did not remain atemporal....with the creation of the universe, God BECAME temporal. He is now in time. There is absolutely nothing illogical about this, and you cannot object to this analogy and claim it is irrational without yourself positing infinite regress, which is demonstrably absurd.
There would be no point in which the girl was not there or there would be no point in which she was. Your trying to force cause and effect in a situation in which there can logically be no cause and effect.
Huh?
yes there is. You cannot say something "pops" into existence. You cannot simply say that you exist, then something else exists and there was no temporal factor to differentiate between the two points of existence.
As I said for the third time (and will continue to say as many times as needed), the concept of infinite regression is demonstrably absurd. I can actually demonstrate why the concept is absurd. In order to negate these absurdities, a timeless cause of the universe is necessary. The only way we can have past events which led to the current events of today is for there to have been ONE timeless cause which initiated the entire chain of causation.
Now, if you want to negate the existence of a timeless cause, then you are right back in the absurd land of INFINITE REGRESSION. That isn't going anywhere, because those are the only two options. Either timeless first cause, or infinite regression. If you take away a timeless first cause, you are stuck with infinite regression. But the concept of infinite regression is ABSURD, and absurdities cannot exist in reality. So if it cannot exist in reality, then a timeless cause wins by default. There is nothing illogical about a timeless cause. What you have shown is you just don't get it.
And when I say "you just don't get it", I don't mean it in a sarcastic or arrogant way. The concept can be difficult to grasp, because we are used to things events occuring temporally prior to other events.
But, when it comes to the origin of time and the universe, we cannot look at causation the same way. When I use the analogy such as "Imagine a man sitting in a chair for all eternity, he never moved, etc"...I am purposely setting up the right circumstances which would allow "us" to reach a present moment in time. This is not something that might have happened, or could have happened, this is something that HAD TO HAPPEN necessarily.
I understand it fully. You are the one missing the pieces here. There is no way to say that "causally prior" without meaning temporally prior.
So how many moments were there prior to the girl popping next to me?
Chronologically prior does not exactly mean causally prior. I think that is your major mistake here.
You are the one with the mistakes buddy, not me.
The rest of it is just gibberish and self conflicting statements. At what time did he become temporal?
T0
How was an atemporal being within the universe to create it?
Straw man. That isn't the arguement.
How did he turn temporal without the universe to create the universe if he didn't?
Straw man.
How did he "change" from atemporal to temporal if atemporal cannot experience change?
Who said he can't experience change?
Your simply stating its a problem. Why is it a problem?
Because infinity cannot be traversed.
Why is infinite regression contradictory? (your view on things are obviously contradictory but seeing as the rest of this post is all about the in depth reason of why I shall stick to the other part of this response)
Infinity cannot be traversed, once again.
Except there are no set number of options. There is not simply "option A" and "Option B". We don't "know" what all the options are.
Oh please. There are only two options. Either time is infinite, or it had a beginning. Those are the only two options.
You also have not demonstrated infinite regression to be impossible either. Again why is it so? And why is god excluded from this?
Already answered this.
Except you are wrong because you don't understand what temporal means.
Oh please. As many times as I have used the word, I don't understand what it means all of a sudden? Tell ya what, get back to me when you can show me that you understand why infinite regression is impossible, so I wont have to educate you on why it is.
So much so that even when it is pointed out to you directly by several different people you still don't see it.
So what makes you think that these several people are so right about what they "point" out to me? Or are you just a follower and going only going in the direction of the majority?