dybmh
ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
He doesn't own her, she is not his slave. This is not an owner/slave relationship. If you actually quote the verses, it clearly says she does these things to herself. If *he* shaved her, and *he* trimmed her, and *he* stripped her. Ok, that's owner/slave. But that's not what it says. It says the opposite. She does 4 acts demonstrating consent. If it was just 1, yes, you could claim it's weak. But all 4, and waiting a month? Those become a strong rational argument that this is not rape.Nope, you can't have consent in an owner/slave relationship. Those are merely very weak justifications. And if she rejects him he can sell her.
You keep forgetting the "you broke it you bought it" mentality of that time.
And, it literally says he cannot sell her, she goes free. That's in every translation I can find. So now you are no longer misinterpretting, you are literally misquoting.
The "you broke it you bought it" idea is something super-imposed on to this. if you want that become a valid argument, it needs more than an assertion.