Convoluted arguments aside,
Which arguments are convoluted? In my view, YOUR arguments are not only convoluted but based on bad interpretation and ditching Ancient Jewish theology in favor of post 2nd-4th century Greek philosophy.
you can't in your right mind tell me that the scriptural argument that the disciples viewed JC as God isn't stronger than any argument claiming that the apostles denied his divinity
We have entire threads about this. The Trinitarians lose every single one. Perhaps you think you have something to add that they didn't.
. For ****'s sake Thomas called him "GOD", spelled "G" "O" "D".
As I've pointed out, the endings of John and Matthew clash (once again, I ask where the disciples first met Jesus, the mountains of Galilee or a Locked room in Jerusalem), and it could have just been OMG as you admit yourself. If you want to discuss the specifics, start a specific thread about it. I've discussed this countless times. Now watch your language, foul language is not approved of in Proverbs and Sirach. Each of these issues you are bringing up is a whole debate on the issue, and each of your issues has been presented (and squashed) in the "Did Jesus say he was God" and many other threads on the issue.
The disciples bowed down and WORSHIPPED the guy.
Addressed below. To worship is to worship, it only and only means "To bow down to". David is worshiped. The commandment is to worship God AND SERVE HIM ONLY. The key word "and" can be a tricky issue. You are commanded to worship God, but you can still worship other beings that are in His league of command. Even before the Angel corrected him, why did John worship the Angel in the first place? Did I not ask you that before? Did you skip that question for a reason? Notice that the Angel tells him to not worship only because they are both prophets. Why would he mention that? Why not just say its wrong altogether? Why would John even worship him to begin with? Did he have a moment of weakness? Did he never learn to worship anyone but God alone?
I realize that Thomas could've taken God's name out of surprise.
Okay, now do you realize that it wasn't even God's name as well?
For that matter, he could've decided to bust into spontaneous worship and for some bizarre reason chose to direct his words intended for who trinitarians would call the "Father" in Jesus' direction instead.
Once again, David was worshiped. The commandment is to worship God AND SERVE HIM ONLY. You simply don't believe me when I say "Worship" means to bow down to or something?
And what about the Jews that prostrated themselves in front of David? Were they worshipping him thereby committing idolatry or were they just paying homage to the king?
It doesn't matter, all worship means is to bow down to. So no idolatry involved. Worship is worship. The problem is the modern connotation of the word is different than the original.
If it's the former than we can assume that its inclusion in the Bible does not represent an endorsment of it
It includes an endorsement that worship means only to bow down to.
. If it's the later, which far more likely, then they're simply honoring the king and it's a moot point.
Then they were simply honoring Jesus.
This is all besides the fact that they continually address JC with the NAME "Lord".
Did you selectively ignore all the times we pointed out that David is called Lord and that the word Lord doesn't exclusively apply to the Father? There's a problem in understanding whether it should be Lord or LORD I agree.
I've never met anybody or ever heard of anybody being named "Lord" except God.
It's not my fault if you selectively read which parts of scriptures you want to read. David is called Lord. Perhaps you haven't read much history either, countless people are referred to as "Lord". In fact, it's a British title of nobility to begin with. But that's for English. In the Greek, the word is used as well. Why do you think they use the title "lord" in the first place?
Yes, people may address someone as "my lord" or "lord so and so". That's a little different than someone who's name is "the Lord".
It's an interpretation issue as to whether the word Kurios is meant to be Lord or LORD which is an implication of the Tetragramamton. The word "LORD" is not really the Name itself. It's the implied. And it can be hard to tell which is which.
Admittingly, I haven't studied the Bible in its original languages very much but my understanding is that "kyrios" is used quite a few times in the Septuagint as the name for God.
Just like how LORD is substituted for the Holy Name itself. At the same time the word is used for David and others.
Again, we can come up with all types of bizarre hypotheses to explain the evidence in such a way so as to argue against the divinity of Jesus or to argue that the disciples denied his divinity.
It's only bizarre when looking at a post-orthodox perspective. However, the issue of the word "Divinity" is as well up to debate. If Jesus was "a god", i.e. an "Angel" (and as I've said, angels are in fact called "gods"), then Jesus did have "divinity" but not quite the way you see it, the same way that Michael the Archangel has "Divinity". Notice that some translations use "Divine beings" for the Angels. So as you can see, Semantics are a big issue, if you want to discuss this objectively, you need to objectively look at the ancient theological ideas, not through the orthodox lens.
We also have to consider what is the most logical/likely conclusion irrespective of whether or not that conclusion inconveniences us or clashes with our worldview[
Exactly. And that's why I consider my view the most logical. If you want to discuss the specifics of these issues, we have countless Trinity threads where I've discussed each of your objections in detail. Like I said, what you are talking about is interpretation issues, and each of those issues in my opinion, has been historically abused to promote the wrong translation or meaning to promote a Trinitarian agenda. The Arians had it right, the Athanasians had it wrong. The JWs have it right in the regards to the Trinitarian theology. You also have to understand Philo's Logos Theology which John's audience was well acquainted with. Now I suppose that no matter how much I explained the problem of each of your positions that you wouldn't necessarily see it as any less logical or likely, so that kind of conclusion is a bit relative unless you have some criteria of what is most likely and logical. For every "proof text" there is for the Trinity, there's other verses like "The Father is Greater than I" that decisively prove that they were totally separate beings. So in that regard, the Trinitarians have little to no defense against the counter-verses.
Either way, I notice you completely skipped what I said about the original Christians being Messianic Jews.