Philosophy is undone at God's command. Our persuits would be meaningless if God was defined. As a representative of myself as an Agnostic Person, my answer shall be sincerely given. As to the first and main question, I believe we can only arrive at theoretical and hypothetical answers, much useless in certainty. But perhaps such possibilities can be pondered thoroughly, in later times. Now, your main argument is formulated based on the first premise: "the nothing isn't there, so it can't do a thing." This statment is easily challenged on grounds of Knowledge ~ how can you know that the nothing isn't there? such problems of the anti-agnostic arguments are studied by philosophy: namely termed the problem of emptiness, or the problem of nothing. In forcus, a statement "the nothing IS there, and so it can do anything" would easily hold as much ground as the original statement posed by anti-agnostics. In such way, I also believe you are confusing "Logic" with "Reason." .
I believe that certainly we can prove that "Nothing" can not do a thing. How to know that nothing isn't there you ask me? We should first of all at least agree on theses important definitions, "nothing" by definition is a concept that describes the absence of anything.
Nothingness is the state of being nothing, the state of nonexistence of anything, or the property of having nothing. nothing isn't there by definition, the other view is Paradoxical, other wise your aren't really talking about nothing, but another "terminological nothing" which is there! Not only there but acts, effects and changes, if it can effect my eye i will see it, if it can effect my ear i will hear it, if it can effect my touch and pressure receptors i can feel it, as long as you confess that your "terminological nothing" is there and can effect then we both agree on the meaning "A thing caused us"and words don't matter, you're not sure of many things, but i don't understand why claiming that theists are agnostic, counting on challenging with the paradoxical question
"how can you know that the nothing isn't there?"
The other hurtle begins at your statement: "Let's use logic to know." It is baseless and rash. Logic is not a tool used to know, it is a process used to establish a connection between what is assumed and what should thus be assumed from that.
Many people with many different definitions, on what bases is this a hurtle?
The next hurtle: the first action must be self-aware; however, when thinking smoothly it becomes clear that self-awareness is considered an action as well... how did this action come into play? The common concept of God would completely confuse the order of action. God would commonly be taken by the deniers of their agnosticism to be always self aware, and always existant. thus the first action was always happening and thus had no beginning and is thus not a "first" action at all. Being as the beginner of Action is a paradox...and it is common in logic to dismiss paradoxes.
Going back to the initial point, the concept of a "first actor" is paradoxical and perhaps oxymoronic. If God is eternal then there is nothing that was "first" and If God is "the cause" then there is nothing that is not God.
If you choose to answer my challenge by saying that you are merely speaking of the first action outside of the self-awereness of God...actually i don't see much of an "outside". But lets say that I grant your believe that there is something separate from its ultimate cause: in that there is God and God's self-awereness, and then there is the "first" and other actions outside of that. Im assuming your next point would be that because of this: irreducibly and irrefutable God would be the "first Actor". However, here is where some polytheistic religions aquire a unique base...In that God created other "gods" whom became the first actors. in this way, God is not the first actor, "gods" are. With these arguments you would have to redefine your definition yet again, in that there was God and God's awareness, and then there was the action of creating gods to create the first "natural" action. In this sense, you believe that your noble religion is "natural" and that God's universal laws are constant, but the universal laws could have been crafted by "gods" that were created by God, in much the same way that so called "angels" were created. In retrospect, the only difference would be a loosely defined one in which "gods" are immortal powerful creatures with free-will, while angels are immortal powerful slaves. I say loosely because the Problem of evil is again presented in that Lucifer should have thus been a slave and would never have sinned...not unless he was a "god."
Though I could not answer your question definatively, I hope that I have shown that the agnostic stance is the noblest and closest to TRUTH. The Theist stance is as baseless as the Atheist. The Ultimate cause is still unknown to us, and is perhaps unknowable
First If self-awareness is a change in God,action, or effect, then what caused it, and here goes an infinity loop, but i never claimed this.
Second i never claimed that there is a "first action of God", but there is a first action to effect us, i said
"Everything ( meaning caused or created) was firstly caused and started by God who has no start, but he himself didn't start acting at a time, and no such thing as the first thing God did, because there are always things before, as God always was there before."
Third, How do you prove that being a beginner of action is impossible? No paradox if that being's self-awareness and ablility to create isn't a change in him but as eterenal, eternity is not only possible but it is an absolute truth, becauses nothing can't do a thing. Moreover calling this idea a paradox simply means that you are saying that your atheist or rejecting God, though you might not notice, because logiclly by claiming that concept of the beginner of action is
impossible, the only choic left is to claim that infinity loop not only exists but surly exists,or the surely"nothing acts". but you are an agnostic and also don't claim that. So be careful that calling your self an agnostic and using the word paradox,impossible at the same time is the real paradox.
Now I will and must point out to you that God is not assumed male; and I personally take it as a great Blasphemy and disrespect of honorable truth to call God a him or her. IT is more powerful than that..
I'm totally with you, God is genderless, but Language diffrence makes this misconceptions. There is no "It" in Arabic language only "Huwa which can either be translated as "He" or "It" and Hia which can either be translated to "She" or "It".
Huwa is defaulte, anything should be refered to by Huwa
Unless is Female, or ends in
"At", and some other rules where "Hia" is used. For example we refer to "shajar
at" meaning "tree" uisng Hia, but never translated it as She. beginner English language students may wrongly refeer to to trees by "She".
Many language are like Arabic and many like English and some maybe diffrent
Probably i as Quranic Muslim should use IT to avoid misconception, if it doesn't imply that God is uncounscious etc.