Luminous
non-existential luminary
I believe that...
First If self-awareness is a change in God,action, or effect, then what caused it, and here goes an infinity loop, but i never claimed this.
Second i never claimed that there is a "first action of God", but there is a first action to effect us, i said
"Everything ( meaning caused or created) was firstly caused and started by God who has no start, but he himself didn't start acting at a time, and no such thing as the first thing God did, because there are always things before, as God always was there before."
Third, How do you prove that being a beginner of action is impossible? No paradox if that being's self-awareness and ablility to create isn't a change in him but as eterenal, eternity is not only possible but it is an absolute truth, becauses nothing can't do a thing. Moreover calling this idea a paradox simply means that you are saying that your atheist or rejecting God, though you might not notice, because logiclly by claiming that concept of the beginner of action is impossible, the only choic left is to claim that infinity loop not only exists but surly exists,or the surely"nothing acts". but you are an agnostic and also don't claim that. So be careful that calling your self an agnostic and using the word paradox,impossible at the same time is the real paradox.
I'm totally with you, God is genderless, but Language diffrence makes this misconceptions. There is no "It" in Arabic language only "Huwa which can either be translated as "He" or "It" and Hia which can either be translated to "She" or "It".
Huwa is defaulte, anything should be refered to by Huwa
Unless is Female, or ends in "At", and some other rules where "Hia" is used. For example we refer to "shajarat" meaning "tree" uisng Hia, but never translated it as She. beginner English language students may wrongly refeer to to trees by "She".
Many language are like Arabic and many like English and some maybe diffrent
Probably i as Quranic Muslim should use IT to avoid misconception, if it doesn't imply that God is uncounscious etc.
First, if you are suggesting that God caused it's own self-awareness then that means it was unconscious at first. [edit -back, now i'll finish ]
second, If God had no first action then what is the point of the "ultimate cause" argument. If it's God all the way down, then It is God all the way up. But I'm guessing what you are saying is that God created causal relationships at a certain point, That seems strange and odd since "certain point" would have to exist outside time...yet certain point is strictly defined within time...but im guessing you think God is cabable of such a paradox. In which case your argument remains a paradox, and all you are doing is confusing yourself into anti-agnostic lies. It seems, however, that you now think that God caused no first action, since there have been actions all the way down, namely: the existance and awareness of God. So then the title of the thread becomes irrelavant, and nothing caused the first action, actions have always been there. Now, assuming that the existance and awareness of God were not "caused or created" yet something after that WAS then there arises a mystery. If it's the existance and awareness of God all the way down, then it should be the existance and awareness of God all the way up. the mystery being in what way does God's existance and awareness "cause or create"? IF God decided somewhere along the line of pre-time "Aha, I shall cause or create!" how did his existance OR awareness cause such a decision? IT seems completely illogical and paradoxical, which makes it rash to argue about.
third, "proving that being a beginner of action is impossible" is not necessarily what I was going for. anything can begin something esle, and that seems to be the case in our physical universe, what i meant to put forward was that "ultimate cause" is an oxymoron. If one says "God can't be infinite, something infinite is not an ultimate cause!" then their statement is legitimate. If they put forth that God's infinateness is ultimately caused by reality, than reality caused God and reality is the true ultimate cause. But I somehow doubt that we have arrived anywhere near reality with our sciences, and have actually departed from reality with our religions. We would likely need to be all-knowing to arrive at reality. O.k. now you try to water down the paradox by saying that God's decision to create was always there, then why didn't it? If it's God all the way down before the first "natural" thing, then why God didn't Go forward on its decision for some pre-time?(can we even talk coherently at "pre-time"?), which is a new paradox, since it existed with its decision made yet didn't make it until it made it...(did "until" even exist before God?) A paradox remains if we try to water this new paradox down by saying that God's eternal existance, awareness, and decision all happened instantly: because "eternal instant" is an oxymoron. Now you are also saying that "eternity is an absolute truth, because nothing can't do anything"...but as I explained before "Nothing" is ALL-POWERFUL. Now assuming "nothing" is powerless, since it is, after-all, nothing (might be as legitimate as saying that nothing is all-powerful); that assumption about nothing (please don't think im playing the fool) does not lead us to "aha! ergo eternity is an absolute truth!" since there appear to be some things which are not eternal. As I explained before, I don't think the eternal can legitimately cause the finite. Also, simply because yours' and other theistic arguments are mostly paradoxical does not mean you can use the fact that I point it out to you as an excuse to name call me, though I am much more Glad that you called by an atheist rather than a theist or other blasphemer. If God existed, an atheist commits only one lie...while theists and Deists grusomely and grotesquely craft and shape their image of God (idol) into what ever shape they see fit for their illigitimate desires. As to whether I am rejecting God...only YOU would know that wouldn't you? (sarcasm). though you might not notice, the truth is you are agnostic. On your explination of why you would call me such a name (though i am glad you didn't call me a theist), You are wrong, clearly showing that you have not given this theistic idea of yours' much thought: For one thing: God could exist even if it it didn't and doesn't cause anything. Even if one choice is removed, there are is an uncountable number of choices left. Wait, let me get you straight: I should be careful in confesing my agnosticism because using the word "paradox" makes me an atheist? Oh never mind, i get what you mean, paradoxs are possible, but i've never been directly aqueinted with one. however, if we go around assuming paradoxs are not not only possibly but most definately true, we would get nowhere fast. I try not to depend on paradoxes for physical and philosophical explinations...though i could be wrong, would you mind showing me why truth should rely on paradox?
Oh, don't worry about it, your mistake shouldn't be taken too hard. I make the same mistake sometimes. Spanish is similar to Arabic in making such a gramatical fault. I believe Spanish has only "that"(eso) "that he"(ese) "that she"(esa) "the he"(el) "the she"(la) and "he thing"(coso) "she thing"(cosa) but i believe there is no "it". "God"(genderless, or male in the English conotation) is refered to as Dios(genderless, or male), instead of Diosa (Godess) which would be a female God. English, however, is more useful for this sort of conversation when including the word "it" meaning solely genderless or gender insignificant, or unknown, or other. When I learned English from Spanish, "it" and gender neutral "the" were concepts that brightened up my day, and made language more elegant in my opinion. The word "it" was no modern conotation on whether something is conscious or not...perhaps it used to.
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