Kolibri
Well-Known Member
@jtartar
In regards to parousia, one might acknowledge that it comes from 2 root words. pa-ra' (alongside) and ou-si'a (being; derived from ei-mi', meaning "be"). So you could say that par-rou-si'a literally translates as "being alongside".
The question remains, is the parousia really short enough in duration to be interchangeable with "coming"?
In the first fulfillment of Mt 24-25, how long did it take for the fulfillment?
Holy Spirit was poured out on the fledgling congregation 50 days after Jesus died at Pentecost 33 C.E.
The disgusting thing that causes desolation came in 66 C.E. when the Roman armies with their standards entered Jerusalem and it's temple.
The End when Jerusalem and it's temple were destroyed in 70 C.E.
This was a parousia of 37 years.
Why would the greater fulfillment of Christ's parousia and the conclusion of this system of things be of a mere "arrival", if it follows the same pattern?
In the first century his anointed disciples were already in "the kingdom of the Son." (Col 1:13) And those that were loyal to his direction saved their lives when Jerusalem was destroyed. But Jesus had not arrived yet as King of God's Kingdom (Mt 6:9,10). When Jesus arrives in this greater capacity with the birth of God's Kingdom, there would be a cleansing of the heavens, and a period of increased woe for the earth. Time would pass before the earth sees an end to it's woes too. (Re 12) Jesus would have arrived, but not come yet as executioner of God's adverse judgements. That waits till the 'great tribulation.'
We can know when Jesus began ruling as King of God's Kingdom, as a descendant of King David - that is the start of his parousia. We can not know when Jesus comes to 'shepherd the nations with an iron rod' at the 'great tribulation'. (Mt 24:21,29-31,36-39)
Besides the first World War, followed by the Spanish Influenza and the constant upheavals since, the fulfillment of 2 Tim 3:1-7, and the increased woe of Re 12:12, a way to calculate the date was left. Daniel 4 wrote of "seven times" that would pass while the Davidic Kingdom, that is God's Kingdom, would continue trampled on by the nations. From Re 12:6,14 we know that '3 1/2 times' equals 1,260 days. Following the biblical rule of "a day for a year" (Nu 14:34; Eze 4:6), "seven times" equals 2,520 years. Counting from the year when Jerusalem was destroyed by the Babylonians and the last King of Judah was dethroned (607 B.C.E), we arrive at the same year as when WWI broke out, 1914 C.E. (For further information as to how we know the year when Jerusalem was destroyed, may I point you to When Was Ancient Jerusalem Destroyed?—Part One — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY and When Was Ancient Jerusalem Destroyed?—Part Two — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY )
Knowing that God's Kingdom is already ruling from the heavens, we can know that the 1st resurrection has already begun to occur.
When you consider 2 Timothy 2:18, what were Hymenaeus and Philetus actually teaching?
They were telling the 1st Century Christians that the resurrection was purely symbolic, that there was no literal resurrection from the dead. (1 Cor 15:12)
In regards to parousia, one might acknowledge that it comes from 2 root words. pa-ra' (alongside) and ou-si'a (being; derived from ei-mi', meaning "be"). So you could say that par-rou-si'a literally translates as "being alongside".
The question remains, is the parousia really short enough in duration to be interchangeable with "coming"?
In the first fulfillment of Mt 24-25, how long did it take for the fulfillment?
Holy Spirit was poured out on the fledgling congregation 50 days after Jesus died at Pentecost 33 C.E.
The disgusting thing that causes desolation came in 66 C.E. when the Roman armies with their standards entered Jerusalem and it's temple.
The End when Jerusalem and it's temple were destroyed in 70 C.E.
This was a parousia of 37 years.
Why would the greater fulfillment of Christ's parousia and the conclusion of this system of things be of a mere "arrival", if it follows the same pattern?
In the first century his anointed disciples were already in "the kingdom of the Son." (Col 1:13) And those that were loyal to his direction saved their lives when Jerusalem was destroyed. But Jesus had not arrived yet as King of God's Kingdom (Mt 6:9,10). When Jesus arrives in this greater capacity with the birth of God's Kingdom, there would be a cleansing of the heavens, and a period of increased woe for the earth. Time would pass before the earth sees an end to it's woes too. (Re 12) Jesus would have arrived, but not come yet as executioner of God's adverse judgements. That waits till the 'great tribulation.'
We can know when Jesus began ruling as King of God's Kingdom, as a descendant of King David - that is the start of his parousia. We can not know when Jesus comes to 'shepherd the nations with an iron rod' at the 'great tribulation'. (Mt 24:21,29-31,36-39)
Besides the first World War, followed by the Spanish Influenza and the constant upheavals since, the fulfillment of 2 Tim 3:1-7, and the increased woe of Re 12:12, a way to calculate the date was left. Daniel 4 wrote of "seven times" that would pass while the Davidic Kingdom, that is God's Kingdom, would continue trampled on by the nations. From Re 12:6,14 we know that '3 1/2 times' equals 1,260 days. Following the biblical rule of "a day for a year" (Nu 14:34; Eze 4:6), "seven times" equals 2,520 years. Counting from the year when Jerusalem was destroyed by the Babylonians and the last King of Judah was dethroned (607 B.C.E), we arrive at the same year as when WWI broke out, 1914 C.E. (For further information as to how we know the year when Jerusalem was destroyed, may I point you to When Was Ancient Jerusalem Destroyed?—Part One — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY and When Was Ancient Jerusalem Destroyed?—Part Two — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY )
Knowing that God's Kingdom is already ruling from the heavens, we can know that the 1st resurrection has already begun to occur.
When you consider 2 Timothy 2:18, what were Hymenaeus and Philetus actually teaching?
They were telling the 1st Century Christians that the resurrection was purely symbolic, that there was no literal resurrection from the dead. (1 Cor 15:12)
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