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The Gospel of John Claims that Jesus is God

PearlSeeker

Well-Known Member
There are a few scriptures in the NT that address Jesus as God, though there are many more that contradict the notion that Jesus is literally God. This is not itself a contradiction, however, providing you apply the term "God" in the manner used elsewhere in the scriptures. Angels have been addressed as God and Yahweh, Moses is said to be God to Pharaoh, and all those who have received the Word of God are called gods. So Jesus being addressed as God is not unique in scripture - and as with these others, there is no reason to interpret the term literally. Rather, we understand that when Moses or an angel are called God that they are called such because they are serving as God's mediators, performing his will and speaking his words. It is no different when Jesus is addressed as God - for he is the sole mediator between God and men under the New Covenant.

I agree but these are all created beings. Jn 1:1 is a different case. The Word was in the Beginning (original Greek: "En arche ..."; Latin: "In principio ..."). This means the first principle or the creative principle. This is something uncreated, the source of all creation. How is this "with" God?
 

iam1me

Active Member
I agree but these are all created beings. Jn 1:1 is a different case. The Word was in the Beginning (original Greek: "En arche ..."; Latin: "In principio ..."). This means the first principle or the creative principle. This is something uncreated, the source of all creation. How is this "with" God?

Jesus is the only begotten Son of God. ie, created.

John 3:16“For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.​
 

TiggerII

Active Member
Jesus is the only begotten Son of God. ie, created.

John 3:16“For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.​

By this the love of God was manifested in us, that God has sent His only begotten Son into the world so that we might live through Him. - NASB.
 

74x12

Well-Known Member
I find attempts to inject Christ into the OT like this are at best speculative in nature, and are generally justified via circular logic. Another common one is to attempt to interpret the Angel of the Lord as being Christ - though Hebrews 1 clearly contradicts such an interpretation.

However, if we were to go along with this idea that Jesus is the light in Genesis 1, then please note that there was a point before the light, when there was just God and the darkness. The light was created/begotten by God and distinct from him.
Not speculative when this is clearly what John is referring to. The point here is not to inject Christ anywhere. But to understand John's writing. If John believed that Genesis 1 was about Jesus (clearly in allegory) then that's enough for me.

As for a point beyond the Light. Yes I agree as far as the Light shining in the darkness of the world. But we can't ignore that God Himself was always Light (1 John 1:5) shining in heaven or wherever God was already shining. But by speaking the Word "Let there be Light" God is shining His own light into the darkened world. So that He can form all things in the Light and bring order to what was then chaos and void. In other words without God saying "Let there be Light" then there was no days and no creation. Because God made all things in 6 days. These were 6 periods of the same Light of Genesis 1:3 in which God made all things. The 7th period of light is when God rests from all His work.

And of course it's foreshadowing the coming of Christ into the world. So that He can also create something which is the kingdom of God within us. And He will be "chief cornerstone" of a new creation. As God said "behold I make all things new" and Jesus is the Day Star arising in their hearts or the Bright and morning Star. All things (of the new creation) are made in His light.
If you read the passage that I cited, Jesus explicitly explains that he is not speaking by his own authority - but the Fathers, not speaking his own words - but the Fathers, and that it is not he who is doing anything, but rather it is the Father working through him. It is quite clear that Jesus is not the Father, but subordinate to him. He says as much himself:


John 14:28“You heard me say, ‘I am going away and I am coming back to you.’ If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I.

Thus you have your work cut out for you to try to argue that Jesus = the Father. Rather, the fact that God is the Father and Jesus is the Son demonstrates that they are very clearly distinct.
In His human nature He is subordinate as all creation is. The humanity of Christ is created as we read in Hebrews 10:5. This human body was created to be the sacrifice or in other words the "Lamb that takes a away the sins of the world".

But His Spirit is uncreated as it says about Jesus in Hebrews 13:5
"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever." Which shows His eternal and unchanging nature.

And of course as I pointed previously we read in Isaiah 9:6 that He not only is a "child that is born" and "a son that is given" but He is also called "mighty God" and "everlasting Father".

Again, everlasting Father. That would imply an eternal and unchanging Divine nature.

So, Jesus is not just flesh and blood but Spirit also. Which is the eternal and unchanging Spirit of God.
Good references. There are certainly mysteries, but that doesn't mean you can defend doctrine by appealing to mystery. Rather, if something is a mystery and beyond our ability to comprehend, then it is quite unreasonable to demand people accept doctrines built around explaining said mysteries - and certainly not a barrier to salvation. If you say it is a mystery how God was manifested, then don't follow that by asserting that God manifested literally in the person of Jesus Christ - that there is no distinguishing Jesus from the Father. For then you are simply asserting whatever you want and when pressured to defend it you fallback to "oh, its a mystery." That is not intellectually honest (not to say that you have done such so far).
I haven't fallen back on "oh it's a mystery" and I know some people do. But, I do believe it's a mystery that can only be revealed by God. So if someone understands the mystery then God showed them.
I took a look. I see where you mention the Son sitting on the right hand of God, but I don't see anything that addresses the clear distinction being demonstrated by such statements.
If you read both posts then I was trying to clarify the "why" of God manifesting Himself into the physical world. Or in other words why God would need or want to become human.

Consider Revelation 11:17. Here God the Almighty takes great power to Himself and reigns. Why does someone who is already "Almighty" need to take power to Himself? And how can He? He already has all power!

The only way was in Jesus Christ who was God manifest in human form. This is when and how the Almighty takes power to Himself and reigns. Because it is Jesus who takes this power for our sake so He can defeat our enemies by it. Because it's necessary that a human being face and defeat the enemies of humanity.

Matthew 28:18
And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.

Revelation 11:17
Saying, We give thee thanks, O Lord God Almighty, which art, and wast, and art to come; because thou hast taken to thee thy great power, and hast reigned.

In conclusion a human being had to take all power and reign for humanity's sake. To put under all our enemies beneath His human feet and to hear the groaning of the prisoner; to loose those that are appointed to death. (Psalm 102:19-20) And so God came in human form Himself to do for us what we could not do alone.

This is why God promised all power and authority to a mere human being (the Messiah). Because He knew He would come to take it for Himself.
 

Oeste

Well-Known Member
I agree but these are all created beings. Jn 1:1 is a different case. The Word was in the Beginning (original Greek: "En arche ..."; Latin: "In principio ..."). This means the first principle or the creative principle. This is something uncreated, the source of all creation. How is this "with" God?

Jesus is the only begotten Son of God. ie, created.

John 3:16“For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.

The word translated as "begotten" here is monogenes, which is better understood as "one of a kind" or a unique relationship rather than the physical act of begetting. (Begot is a past tense of beget).

Jesus certainly was not "created" through some sexual reproductive act Mary had with God as suggested by@iam1me and the Witnesses.

Let's look at another monogenes, this time at Hebrews 11:17:

By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten (monogenes) son"

If we use iam1me's interpretation of "created" here, we would immediately think God or the apostle Paul got confused about Abraham's sons, especially knowing that Ishmael was born prior to Isaac. However once we understand monogenes is better understood to reflect the special unique relationship Abraham had with Isaac this verse and John 3:16 easily fall into place.
 

Oeste

Well-Known Member
Angels have been addressed as God and Yahweh

Only when the angel IS God (a Theophany) but never when the angel is not.

Moses is said to be God to Pharaoh,

Moses was "made" God to Pharaoh, just like Ra had been made God to Pharaoh, but at no time did Moses actually become "a God".

and all those who have received the Word of God are called gods.

Interesting.

Do you consider yourself a God?

I have the same question for the Witness posting here. Do you consider those on the Governing Board as Gods, since the are the chosen anointed "who have received the Word of God"?
 

PearlSeeker

Well-Known Member
I agree but these are all created beings. Jn 1:1 is a different case. The Word was in the Beginning (original Greek: "En arche ..."; Latin: "In principio ..."). This means the first principle or the creative principle. This is something uncreated, the source of all creation. How is this "with" God?

Jesus is the only begotten Son of God. ie, created.

John 3:16“For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.​

Exactly. Begotten NOT created.

"All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made." (John 1:3)

So the Word can't be made. It is something that existed before all things. God created through it.
 

PearlSeeker

Well-Known Member
So, Jesus is not just flesh and blood but Spirit also. Which is the eternal and unchanging Spirit of God.

Not just Jesus:

"Don't you know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit within you, whom you have from God?" (1 Cor 6:19)
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
I believe this is the best one but there are hundreds of others. John 10:30 I and the Father are one.”
Jesus is not saying that he is God or saying that he is his father or saying that he is equal with God. . Jesus is one in plan and purpose.
Jesus subsequently prayed for his disciples, "that they may be one, as we are." (John 17:11, 21). These words require that the unity referred to, be also extended to the disciples. Obviously the unity is not that of the powers of the Godhead but unity resulting from sanctification through the word of God. (John 17:14, 17, 18).

Also in John 17:22, 23: ". . . that they may be one, even as we are one: I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one . . ." Likewise, these words require a relationship between the disciples and Christ which exists between the Son and his Father - a unity, or perfection with the divine purpose.

Elsewhere in John's gospel, Jesus clearly affirms that he is not co-equal with the Father: "The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do." (John 5:19); "I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me." (John 5:30); "My Father is greater than I." (John 14:28).

I believe this is not the case. God was His Father by means of creation but in a sense we share that with Him. The difference is that Jesus has for His residing spirit, the Spirit of God which is what God is and we have our own spirits.
Well, keep in mind that God's spirit is in us too. Scripture tells us that.

I believe you are in error on both counts. Jesus is not a god He is God in the flesh. The Messiah has to be God according to this prophecy:
Isa. 9:6......his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,
Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Your miss reading this prophecy. His name "shall be called". This is a future prophecy. Might God is might EL or the power of God. Jesus can also be called God or Elohim also. Jesus was made lower than the angels (Elohim). He also bares God's name too dont forget.

Look at John 10 "The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?
37 If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.
38 But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him."



I can't imagine where you get that assurance. Maybe you just wish it were so.
Not sure what your talking about here...... What assurance.... Everything I get is in scripture.

I believe that suggestion is utter blasphemy.
I"m sorry, shouldnt I be saying that to you?......

God is still a Spirit in Jesus and can't become flesh.
What?..... But God's spirit is in all of us. Really not sure what your getting at.

I believe yo should know there is an injunction against changing the Word of God to suit your own purpose. The text does not say "one in plan and purpose" the text says "one".

Since you are putting words in the mouth of Jesus you are intimating that you know what he was intending to say but didn't and if you were guided by the Holy Spirit on this I would still contend with you because I am guided by the Holy Spirit on this and He meant just what he said.

I believe Jesus prayed for this because it is difficult to achieve. I believe I have a oneness with God, Jesus and the Paraclete but not at all times.

I believe I don't know what false reasoning are you using. That exactly confirms they are co-equal because there is no way Jesus would so exactly be as the Father in doing things if it were not so.

I believe you don't understand that there is a difference. The Spirit of God is in Jesus as the residing Spirit. For the Spirit of God to be in one who receives Him the person has to allow God's Spirit in side but most people do not allow Him to reside there. For those who don't receive Him the Spirit of God is there but not in the mind.

I believe you will find that God does not share His power. So if He is the power of God then He is God.

I believe I have seen it many times. I think you ought to notice that He doesn't deny that He is making Himself God. He only justifies it.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
Exactly. Begotten NOT created.

"All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made." (John 1:3)

So the Word can't be made. It is something that existed before all things. God created through it.

I believe the body is both begotten and created and the Spirit of God within is nteiher.
 

PearlSeeker

Well-Known Member
The Gospel of John is indeed the closest to the doctrine of Trinity, especially the opening verses. However I'm not sure if it means exactly the same. It seems more like the divine Wisdom of the Proverbs became identified with Christ.

What baffles is that the Word/Wisdom is before all creation but at the same time it/she/he stems from God - "begotten", "firstborn", "image of the invisible God". Maybe like the Sun and its light. Paul said Christ "dwells in unapproachable light". For the Orthodox this is the "Tabor Light" - the uncreated glory. For them God is not only essence but also "energy" ...
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
The Gospel of John is indeed the closest to the doctrine of Trinity, especially the opening verses. However I'm not sure if it means exactly the same. It seems more like the divine Wisdom of the Proverbs became identified with Christ.
What baffles is that the Word/Wisdom is before all creation but at the same time it/she/he stems from God - "begotten", "firstborn", "image of the invisible God". Maybe like the Sun and its light. Paul said Christ "dwells in unapproachable light". For the Orthodox this is the "Tabor Light" - the uncreated glory. For them God is not only essence but also "energy" ...

John does Not teach Jesus is ' before ' the beginning of creation.
Psalms 90:2 teaches only God was ' before ' the beginning.
So, true, Jesus was ' in ' the beginning, but Jesus was Not ' before ' the beginning as his God was.
This is why John could write at Revelation 3:14 that pre-human Jesus was the beginning of the creation by God.

God sends forth His spirit (energy) according to Psalms 104:30.
So, God supplied His abundant dynamic energy ( Power and Strength ) to create the visible world - Isaiah 40:26
 

iam1me

Active Member
Exactly. Begotten NOT created.

"All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made." (John 1:3)

So the Word can't be made. It is something that existed before all things. God created through it.

If one is begotten then they are created. You are being silly. That is to be expected though. The traditional response is to say that Christ is "eternally begotten" (a phrase that never appears in scripture) in order to pay lip service to what the scriptures teach while simultaneously denying what they teach.
 
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iam1me

Active Member
Not speculative when this is clearly what John is referring to. The point here is not to inject Christ anywhere. But to understand John's writing. If John believed that Genesis 1 was about Jesus (clearly in allegory) then that's enough for me.

As for a point beyond the Light. Yes I agree as far as the Light shining in the darkness of the world. But we can't ignore that God Himself was always Light (1 John 1:5) shining in heaven or wherever God was already shining. But by speaking the Word "Let there be Light" God is shining His own light into the darkened world. So that He can form all things in the Light and bring order to what was then chaos and void. In other words without God saying "Let there be Light" then there was no days and no creation. Because God made all things in 6 days. These were 6 periods of the same Light of Genesis 1:3 in which God made all things. The 7th period of light is when God rests from all His work.

And of course it's foreshadowing the coming of Christ into the world. So that He can also create something which is the kingdom of God within us. And He will be "chief cornerstone" of a new creation. As God said "behold I make all things new" and Jesus is the Day Star arising in their hearts or the Bright and morning Star. All things (of the new creation) are made in His light.

I'll give you this: of the many attempts that people try to use to infuse Christ or the Trinity into the OT, the idea that Jesus is the light in Genesis actually has some merit. However, you don't follow through with this observation in your theology. You recognize that he is the light, but then deny that there was a time before the light - that God called the light into existence, and that the light in question was distinct from God himself, as we see in Genesis.

In His human nature He is subordinate as all creation is. The humanity of Christ is created as we read in Hebrews 10:5. This human body was created to be the sacrifice or in other words the "Lamb that takes a away the sins of the world".

But His Spirit is uncreated as it says about Jesus in Hebrews 13:5
"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever." Which shows His eternal and unchanging nature.

And of course as I pointed previously we read in Isaiah 9:6 that He not only is a "child that is born" and "a son that is given" but He is also called "mighty God" and "everlasting Father".

Again, everlasting Father. That would imply an eternal and unchanging Divine nature.

So, Jesus is not just flesh and blood but Spirit also. Which is the eternal and unchanging Spirit of God.

Unbiblical speculation. Nothing in scripture asserts that it is merely the human aspect of Christ that is subordinate. You add to the scripture by saying such things, and deny the Lord's own words.

You further contradict Christ when he plainly says "it is not I, but the Father" - further clarifying (if there were any doubt) that he is not the Father, but the Son. Indeed, he never says he is God, but always the Son of God. He is always depicted as being on the right hand of God.

Unless you put forth a very strong and reasonable argument that addresses the plethora of scripture that so clearly distinguishes Jesus from the Father, your theology cannot be seriously entertained.

As for Isaiah 9:6, this whole thing: "Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace." is a single name. It is a common practice, particularly in the OT, to embed the term "God", "Yahweh", etc. into the names of men. So this verse by itself carries little weight. See Theophory in the Bible - Wikipedia

Additionally, the very translation of this verse (not just the interpretation) is contestable. For example, this is how it is translated in the Orthodox Jewish Bible:
(5) For unto us a yeled is born, unto us ben is given; and the misrah (dominion) shall be upon his shoulder; and Shmo shall be called Peleh (Wonderful), Yoetz (Counsellor), El Gibbor (Mighty G-d), Avi Ad (Possessor of Eternity), Sar Shalom (Prince of Peace).​

As for Hebrews 13:8, that verse merely communicates his consistency, not the idea that he is without beginning. You are reading what you want into the verse.

I haven't fallen back on "oh it's a mystery" and I know some people do. But, I do believe it's a mystery that can only be revealed by God. So if someone understands the mystery then God showed them.

Agreed, you haven't fallen back on the mystery defense - which I commend you for. I believe in Jesus' words: seek and you shall find, knock and it will open.

If you read both posts then I was trying to clarify the "why" of God manifesting Himself into the physical world. Or in other words why God would need or want to become human.

Which doesn't really address my point in bringing up such verses. Namely: the clear distinction being made between Jesus and God. It is abundantly clear that when Paul says something like "Jesus is at the right hand of God" that Paul does not view Jesus as being God himself.
 

iam1me

Active Member
The word translated as "begotten" here is monogenes, which is better understood as "one of a kind" or a unique relationship rather than the physical act of begetting. (Begot is a past tense of beget).

Jesus certainly was not "created" through some sexual reproductive act Mary had with God as suggested by@iam1me and the Witnesses.

Let's look at another monogenes, this time at Hebrews 11:17:

By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten (monogenes) son"

If we use iam1me's interpretation of "created" here, we would immediately think God or the apostle Paul got confused about Abraham's sons, especially knowing that Ishmael was born prior to Isaac. However once we understand monogenes is better understood to reflect the special unique relationship Abraham had with Isaac this verse and John 3:16 easily fall into place.

EDIT: After doing some follow up research, you maybe correct that monogenes is better translated as "unique" or "only" (no begotten). This conflicts with how the Church Fathers interpreted it in councils and creeds, but it wouldn't be the first time they got something wrong.

However, we can always visit other verses that assert he is begotten, so it is of little consequence:

Psalm 2:7“I will surely tell of the decree of the Lord: He said to Me, ‘You are My Son, Today I have begotten You.

Hebrews 1:5 For to which of the angels did He ever say, “You are My Son, Today I have begotten You”? And again, “I will be a Father to Him And He shall be a Son to Me”?​

Even the Church Fathers who rejected the idea of his being begotten never denied that the scriptures said as much. Instead they came up with the nonsensical idea that Christ is "eternally begotten" so that they could pay lip service to the scriptures while denying what the scriptures teach.

Also, I'm not a JW. I've never said or insinuated that God engaged in physical intercourse (God doesn't have a physical body). Don't go around accusing people of such obviously false doctrines.
 
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iam1me

Active Member
Only when the angel IS God (a Theophany) but never when the angel is not.

God isn't an angel, and Hebrews 1 completely undermines the idea that Christ is/was an angel.

Moses was "made" God to Pharaoh, just like Ra had been made God to Pharaoh, but at no time did Moses actually become "a God".

You couldn't be more off the mark. Moses was not God to Pharaoh in the same manner as the Egyptian Gods. In the first place because when God says that he makes Moses God to Pharaoh, it is by virtue of agency - in the same manner as the angels who spoke for God. In the second place, Pharaoh never once worships Moses or addresses him as a god.

Interesting.

Do you consider yourself a God?

According to Christ, all to whom the Word of God has come are gods in the same sense as with Moses & the Angels being called God. You must be one who is doing God's will.

The Church Fathers went much further with this idea, if you ever get around to reading their works. They would assert things like: through the Holy Spirit, we too participate in the divine nature/substance of God.
 
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moorea944

Well-Known Member
I believe yo should know there is an injunction against changing the Word of God to suit your own purpose. The text does not say "one in plan and purpose" the text says "one".

Since you are putting words in the mouth of Jesus you are intimating that you know what he was intending to say but didn't and if you were guided by the Holy Spirit on this I would still contend with you because I am guided by the Holy Spirit on this and He meant just what he said.

I believe Jesus prayed for this because it is difficult to achieve. I believe I have a oneness with God, Jesus and the Paraclete but not at all times.

I believe I don't know what false reasoning are you using. That exactly confirms they are co-equal because there is no way Jesus would so exactly be as the Father in doing things if it were not so.

I believe you don't understand that there is a difference. The Spirit of God is in Jesus as the residing Spirit. For the Spirit of God to be in one who receives Him the person has to allow God's Spirit in side but most people do not allow Him to reside there. For those who don't receive Him the Spirit of God is there but not in the mind.

I believe you will find that God does not share His power. So if He is the power of God then He is God.

I believe I have seen it many times. I think you ought to notice that He doesn't deny that He is making Himself God. He only justifies it.


I believe yo should know there is an injunction against changing the Word of God to suit your own purpose. The text does not say "one in plan and purpose" the text says "one".

Im not changing anything, you are. I'm just explaining what a certain verse means, just like you are doing........

Since you are putting words in the mouth of Jesus you are intimating that you know what he was intending to say but didn't and if you were guided by the Holy Spirit on this I would still contend with you because I am guided by the Holy Spirit on this and He meant just what he said.

I"m not putting any words in Jesus's mouth. Plus, the HS is not a person....... It is the power God. Angels can be called the Holy Spirit or a spirit that is Holy. There is only one God, not three. And you say that I"m changing things? Wow..........
If the HS was a person, then he would be Jesus's father.

I believe I don't know what false reasoning are you using. That exactly confirms they are co-equal because there is no way Jesus would so exactly be as the Father in doing things if it were not so.

I'm not using any false reasoning. Jesus is not co-equal. Where do you even get that?

Plus, Jesus is not exactly like the Father. He is not a GOD. But.... Jesus is doing "exactly" what the father wants. Doesnt Jesus say that I can do anything without the father? The father is great than I? What..... bible are you reading?.......

I believe you don't understand that there is a difference. The Spirit of God is in Jesus as the residing Spirit.

I dont, esp your version!!! But anyhow......

Doesnt scripture say that God's spirit is also in us?

I believe you will find that God does not share His power. So if He is the power of God then He is God.

Ughhhhh....

Of course He shares his power. He "gave" his power and all authority to his son. He also gave some of his power in Holy Spirit gifts. Even in the OT. Samson for one.......

I believe I have seen it many times. I think you ought to notice that He doesn't deny that He is making Himself God. He only justifies it.

I really dont know where your getting this from. Jesus NEVER says that he is God!!! He gives God glory in everything that he did!!

In the book of Isaiah, it says that there is only one God and no other God's beside God. Your saying that is wrong, there are God's beside our Gods!! God the son and God the HS. STop changing the bible!!!
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Jn 1:1 is a different case. The Word was in the Beginning (original Greek: "En arche ..."; Latin: "In principio ..."). This means the first principle or the creative principle....

Hi Pearlseeker ;

I didn't want to interrupt your discussion but to make a very specific point regarding greek. The greek words you quoted, "εν αρχη" do NOT mean "the first principle or the creative principle".

These two greek words simply mean "In [the] beginning..." (the article lacks, but is implied)

These two words alone, reference time, they do not, without other words to provide context, refer "to any creative principle." One MUST refer to other words or phrases to give more meaning than this to these two greek words.

Clear
ειειτωσετζω
 

Samantha Rinne

Resident Genderfluid Writer/Artist
In the book of John it's pretty obvious that the author is saying that Jesus is God.

John 1:1 makes that much easily clear. The Word was with God and the Word was God.

Jewish authorship:
The arguments from Arianism that this is speaking of "a" god are flawed for a few reasons. First of all the author is a Jew and that's not a Jewish idea. The author is obviously familiar with the Torah and it's commandments. Including "Hear oh Israel Jehovah our Elohim is one Jehovah." And "Thou shalt have no other elohim before me."

So the concept of two gods is against Judaism and it's silly to think that the Jewish author of John would be promoting the worship of two gods.

I am afraid you weren't formally schooled in Christian theology.

God and Jesus are not two gods, anymore than the Trinity is three gods.

Jesus is God. The Trinity is God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit.

What does this involve? Well, all things. An analysis of world religion talked in-depth about each of the major religions, and of the Trinity, they said there is really nothing outside the Trinity. So this means:
1. Everything that exists is of God, even things created by humans or tools
2. Our souls are part of the Holy Spirit
3. And Jesus, having lived and died as one of us, lives inside of all of us.
 
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