The Heinz Dilemma

[LuisDantas]

Don't know where you studied US History but the Union could have used force to abolish slavery at any given time. The war was about Confederate states trying to flex their muscles concerning state's rights. Slavery, which of course was an abomination, was just the scapegoat/rallying cry of that war. The Northern states could insist on moral indignation over slavery because their more industrialized economy was not conducive to slave labor, so it wasn't in their financial best interest to start a war to free the slaves. If it were not for the misguided southern hard headedness slavery as an institution may have continued for some time.

I have no idea of what that was supposed to say or mean.

 

[BSM1]

I have no idea of what that was supposed to say or mean.

You had to be there, I guess.

 

[Nous]

The Northern states could insist on moral indignation over slavery because their more industrialized economy was not conducive to slave labor

Why isn't slave labor just as "conducive" in an "industrialized economy" as in an agrarian economy? The very claim seems to suggest that slaves are/were unable to work the New England looms, or perform the labor in the farming and fishing endeavors in the non-Confederate states.