sooda
Veteran Member
Alexander was a Macedonian. The Doric Spartans came from Macedonia. Conquered doesn't mean the same thing to everyone. Some say he only passed through Palestine on his way to Egypt. Some say he went out of his way to stop off at Jerusalem and bow to the temple. Some say that the Greeks say nothing about Alexander and Jerusalem. Some say that Alexander was pretty much like Rome, in that he let them keep their laws and added Macedonian overlords to the mix... taking taxes which were then called tribute. (shrug) Not much of a bondage.
I've heard about the Decapolis, but the Greeks isn't a history I care to investigate. People play fast and loose with ancient history, confusing Pelasgian Javan with its Indo-Iranian Greek supplanters.
On the other hand, if Ridgeway is right (in 'The Early Age of Greece'), the Greeks came from Halstadt, had iron weapons, and made Celtic jewelry. IMO, that pretty much makes them relatives to the Cymry, unless they copied what they found. But Davies' theory (in 'Celtic Researches') is that Riphath is Slavic, Ashkenaz is Cymry, and Togarmah is the Germans... which makes Riphath the Greeks, if you go by who owned the land. The Ligurians were the original Latins, who moved the Iberians east and had Turdetani and Turduli, and Celtica and Celto-Iberia. And Latin is the language we find on the monuments in Britain. Even the Belgae kings had Latin names. But the Druids used the Greek letters, and so did Gaul.
It gets even stranger, when you read that the Cymry match the description of the Pelasgians. And that the Pelasgians had Zeus and the Oak Trees, just as the Druids did (Cook, 'Zeus, Jupiter and the Oak').
THIS is the tip of the iceberg, as to why I question the identity of the Greeks.
You sound terribly scattered.
Why did you bring up "bondage"? Is that your invention?