Only by being outside/independent of the system.So, how would such variables arise?
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
Only by being outside/independent of the system.So, how would such variables arise?
With omniscience foreknowledge is just prediction because all is known. No need to be psychic or outside of time for that to be the case. Some can just predict better than others but it takes knowledge.Let me see if I can restate the question to make it more clear.
On one hand, we have philosophers who have proposed the problem of God's foreknowledge vs. Man's free will, which goes something like this:
Knowledge is true, which is to say that a proposition has to be true to qualify as knowledge. If I propose, "You will finish this book tomorrow," and if it's true, I have expressed knowledge of the future. Similarly, the omniscient God allegedly has knowledge of all events that will be, and as knowledge is true, it's all true, so the sequence of events cannot happen any other way. In believing this image of omniscience about God, a theist boxes themselves into an unfree world where, even if he for example wanted with all his heart to do the right thing, he cannot but choose to do wrong if it's true that he will choose to do wrong.On the other hand, we have philosophers who hoped to poke a hole in this picture by proposing that propositions worded about the future have no truth value. Only propositions about things that are certain have truth value; and as knowledge is true, omniscience need only be about the true propositions. As there is no truth about the future available, either to us or to God, "foreknowledge" amounts to nothing more than prediction.
So the question is, what do you think about this counter-argument?
The arguments are more about the nature of the two things, knowledge and prediction. Knowledge has inherent truth, prediction (however inductive it may be) has inherent uncertainty. Actuality is where the inherent truth resides. What is actual can be known, the future cannot. Statements about the future are prediction.
As we (me at least) have no knowledge about truth of foreknowledge, to make any comment about foreknowledge will amount to making nothing but prediction?
But only one of those conditions distinguishes knowledge from belief.
(a.k.a. Beating a Dead Horse)
The problem of God's foreknowledge vs. Man's free will was dealt with by past philosophers by specifying the distinction between knowledge and prediction in regards to truth, and holding that foreknowledge, even God's, is prediction.
Do you agree with this assessment? Why or why not?
Freewill is doing what you want to do. It doesn't matter if someone, something knows beforehand that you are going to do something. As long you did an act because it is what you wanted to do.
If you had enough data you could predict what an individual is going to do in given circumstances. That doesn't mean they weren't free to act according to their desires. It only means, knowing their desires, their actions were predictable.
Freewill is doing what you want to do. It doesn't matter if someone, something knows beforehand that you are going to do something. As long you did an act because it is what you wanted to do.
If you had enough data you could predict what an individual is going to do in given circumstances. That doesn't mean they weren't free to act according to their desires. It only means, knowing their desires, their actions were predictable.
But if your desires dictate what you're going to do, is it really a "free" act?Freewill is doing what you want to do. It doesn't matter if someone, something knows beforehand that you are going to do something. As long you did an act because it is what you wanted to do.
If you had enough data you could predict what an individual is going to do in given circumstances. That doesn't mean they weren't free to act according to their desires. It only means, knowing their desires, their actions were predictable.
The problem with what you say is that it ceases to be a real free will. It is only a relative free will, and thus, not entirely free:
You are not free from the patterns you WILL follow no matter what.
You could say there is a relative free will, but it is still relative. Ultimately, everything that comes from your "free will" is actually God´s choice, because he created you with your specific desires and inclinations to do anything you do.
But if your desires dictate what you're going to do, is it really a "free" act?
Well, to be fair capital "G" God almost always knows everything I believe, be of the religious tradition it may be. There should be exceptions I would assume, but I would assume there would be little of them.
Read it how you want I guess. I saw this: "The problem of divine foreknowledge insinuates that theism precludes morality." I still say that it is generalization and it is faulty. It needs to be specific if it is meant to be specific and if it isn't...it is flat out wrong.
As to the last point, I believe supposedly the main crutch point, KT is right.
How else would they come to exist?Do they need to arise?
But these variables that exist outside the system, what ever that is, have an effect within the system. Exactly how does that work?Only by being outside/independent of the system.
Like an programmer is to autonomous software (elements within the system might even think they have free will).But these variables that exist outside the system, what ever that is, have an effect within the system. Exactly how does that work?
I agree with god knowing every possible proposition but this would also entail knowing which propositions would be taken. In this way god has the ability to influence which course will be taken.
Well thought out answers, thank you. The compatibilist theories always paint interesting pictures.Would you ever act against your desires? Even if forced to do something it's a desire for self preservation.
While humans are very complex, there's no reason to think we act arbitrarily to the universe. Something in or past or current circumstances cause the desire we feel which we act upon. Later in hind sight we may consider other actions we could have taken. So there maybe a perception of having had a choice. However there is no reason to think in the same situation with the same prior circumstances/knowledge you would have acted any different then you did.
Choice maybe an illusion of imagination. Of course in the future because of what you imagined, you may choose otherwise but then that choice will also have been determine by the past and you will choose accordingly.
No. Not an analogy. I'm looking for an explanation of how a variable existing outside the system, which I'm taking as our reality, can impact our reality. And just what kind of reality is this, which is not our own, in which the variable exists?Like an programmer is to autonomous software (elements within the system might even think they have free will).
I'm not to sure the objective but hopefully not a cold death for the universe.To what end though.and for what purpose?
It is at the quantum level that matter does not act within the rules of reality as we know it which is why we are still trying to find the unified theory that can add some logic to the way things act at that level. I consider these separate systems that have interaction with each other. Whether it can be controlled by an entity is a question I'm not sure about. A god could be independent of our reality while still being subject to his own like the programmer analogy.No. Not an analogy. I'm looking for an explanation of how a variable existing outside the system, which I'm taking as our reality, can impact our reality. And just what kind of reality is this, which is not our own, in which the variable exists?