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The trinity is false - I have proof

Notes

1. This objection, raised most forcefully by Harner, assumes a mathematical precision that cannot always be sustained in the pragmatics of language use. While convertible propositions usually signify 100% equivalence between subject and predicate, this need not be the case when they are preceded by an explicit statement denying 100% equivalence ("And the Word was with God"). It is doubtful that the 8th Century scribes who wrote "kai ho theos �n ho logos" in Codex L (Regius) understood what is grammatically a convertible proposition to be tantamount to Modalism. Other explanations are certainly possible, such as understanding theos to be used as a title or proper name, or taking the entire verse as a paradox.

2. This line of argument is addressed in the Jehovah's Witness/John 1:1c section of Other Views Considered (below). It has been thoroughly debated by Don Hartley and Jehovah's Witness apologist, Greg Stafford. I had a brief interaction with Greg Stafford on this subject as well. See also "Theos is a Count Noun").

3. C.f., John 3:6 "He who is born of the flesh is (by nature) flesh; he who is born of the Spirit is (by nature) spirit

4. Cf., Wuest's The New Testament: An Expanded Translation: "And the Word was as to His essence absolute deity;" and the New English Translation: "and the Word was fully God." Perhaps the most accurate English translation of John 1:1 has been offered by Robert Bowman: "In the Beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the Deity, and the Word was Deity" (John, p. 27). This translation preserves the use and non-use of the article, and conveys the purely qualitative nuance of the anarthrous theos. The Dana-Mantey grammar offers essentially the same translation, sans the capital letters: "and the word was deity" (p. 148). In Colossians 2:9, Paul uses a different grammatical construction to say much the same thing about Christ's Deity.
 
1) This doesn't answer my question.

2) Yes, Isaiah 45:23 says that “the LOGOS of righteousness has gone out of my mouth, and I will not turn back.” Did God's Logos stop being God because he is "beyond God"?
Isaiah 45
Easy-to-Read Version
God Chooses Cyrus to Make Israel Free
45 This is what the Lord said to Cyrus, his chosen king[a]:

“I took you by your right hand to help you defeat nations,
to strip other kings of their power,
and to open city gates that will not be closed again.
2 I will go in front of you
and make the mountains flat.
I will break the city gates of bronze
and cut the iron bars on the gates.
3 I will give you the wealth that is stored in secret places.
I will give you those hidden treasures.
Then you will know that I am the Lord,
the God of Israel, who calls you by name.
4 I do this for my servant, Jacob.
I do it for my chosen people, Israel.
Cyrus, I am calling you by name.
You don’t know me, but I know you.
5 I am the Lord, the only God.
There is no other God except me.
I put your clothes on you,[c]
but still you don’t know me.
6 I am doing this so that everyone will know
that I am the only God.
From the east to the west, people will know that I am the Lord
and that there is no other God.
7 I made the light and the darkness.
I bring peace, and I cause trouble.
I, the Lord, do all these things.

8 “May the clouds in the skies above
pour goodness on the earth like rain.
May the earth open up
to let salvation grow.
And may goodness grow with that salvation,
which I, the Lord, created.

God Controls His Creation
9 “Look at these people! They are arguing with the one who made them. Look at them argue with me. They are like pieces of clay from a broken pot. Clay does not say to the one molding it, ‘Man, what are you doing?’ Things that are made don’t have the power to question the one who makes them. 10 A father gives life to his children, and they cannot ask, ‘Why are you giving me life?’ They cannot question their mother and ask, ‘Why are you giving birth to me?’”

11 The Lord God is the Holy One of Israel. He created Israel, and he says,

“My children, you asked me to show you a sign.
You told me to show you what I have done.[d]
12 I made the earth,
and I created the people on it.
I used my own hands to make the skies.
And I command all the armies in the sky.[e]
13 I was right to give power to Cyrus,[f]
and I will make his work easy.
He will rebuild my city,
and he will set my people free without bribes or payment.”
The Lord All-Powerful said this.

14 The Lord says, “Egypt and Ethiopia are rich,
but, Israel, you will get those riches.
The tall people from Seba will be yours.
They will walk behind you with chains around their necks.
They will bow down before you
and ask you to pray for them and say,
‘The true God really is with you,
and there is no other God.’”

15 You are the God people cannot see.
You are the God who saves Israel.
16 Many people make false gods,
but they will be disappointed.
All of them will go away ashamed.
17 But Israel will be saved by the Lord.
That salvation will continue forever.
Never again will Israel be shamed.
18 The Lord is God.
He made the skies and the earth.
He put the earth in its place.
He did not want the earth to be empty when he made it.
He created it to be lived on.
“I am the Lord.
There is no other God.
19 I have spoken openly, not in secret.
I did not hide my words in a dark and secret place.
I did not tell the people of Jacob
to look for me in empty places.
I am the Lord, and I speak the truth.
I say only what is right.

The Lord Proves He Is the Only God
20 “You people who escaped from other nations, gather together before me. (These people carry statues of false gods. They pray to useless gods, but they don’t know what they are doing. 21 Tell them to come to me. Let them present their case and discuss these things.)

“Who told you about this before it happened? Who told you this so long ago? I, the Lord, am the one who said these things. I am the only God, the one who does what is right. I am the one who saves, and there is no other! 22 So all you people in faraway places, turn to me and be saved, because I am God, and there is no other.

23 “When I make a promise, that promise is true. It will happen. And I swear by my own power that everyone will bow before me and will take an oath to obey me. 24 They will say, ‘Goodness and strength come only from the Lord.’”

And all who show their anger against him will be humiliated. 25 The Lord will help the people of Israel live right[g] and praise their God.
 

servant1

Active Member
No small letters in the Greek Manuscripts. smile Theos is Capital there.

With the possible exception of Genesis 1:1, this verse is the most striking opening of any book of the Bible. Often missed in the various discussions about what John means by this elegant and deceptively simple sentence, is the fact that this verse is poetic. Many commentators have noted the poetic form of the first 18 verses of John's Gospel - the so-called "Prologue." Some see in the Prologue an early Christian hymn; others argue against that view. But few, if any, deny that John is writing beautiful, rhythmic prose. John captures our attention with both style and content. He wants to create questions in the minds of his readers - questions that his Gospel will answer in full measure. If this verse is poetic in nature, and if the writer intends to arrest his audience - to grab their attention from the outset with a striking and consciously enigmatic statement - is it little wonder that so much has been written about the ultimate meaning of this verse, and the final clause in particular?
The opening phrase, "In the beginning," is an allusion to Genesis 1:1. The same phrase in Greek appears in the Greek translation of the Old Testament, the Septuagint, which John and his audience would have been intimately familiar. But whereas Genesis opens with "In the beginning God," John opens with "In the beginning was the Word." In the place where "God" occurs in Genesis, John substitutes "was the Word" in his Gospel. This juxtaposition of God and the Word - the interplay between the Word with God and the Word as God - is one of the primary themes of the Prologue, and the Gospel as a whole. From the outset, John challenges his audience by introducing the Word - the Son of God - into places and activities where they would have expected God to be. The Word never replaces God, however, but rather is always there beside Him.

The "beginning" is the beginning in Genesis - the first act of creation, when God made the heavens and the earth. There is little evidence that Jews in the Second Temple period held a common belief in an undefined period prior to the creation in Genesis, during which God created things other than the heavens and the earth. John's audience would have understood his meaning quite easily, though it would have surprised and intrigued them: In the beginning, before all creation, the Word already existed. The Greek word translated "was" signifies continual existence (see Grammatical Analysis, below). There is no more hint here of the creation of the Word than there is of the creation of God.

The Greek for "Word" is LOGOS. Much speculation has surrounded John's source for this term. Many have suggested Philo as a likely source. However, recent scholarship has focused more on Jewish Wisdom tradition, which spoke of God's Word in a metaphoric sense as having personal attributes. The discovery of a native Jewish origin for LOGOS has caused most scholars to abandon the notion that John's Gospel represents an early Gnostic text (championed by Bauer and others). If John's audience was familiar with the use of LOGOS as a personified attribute of God, it must be asked whether they would consider John's LOGOS to be a separate being, or still in some way a "part" of God - either literally or still an exaggerated personification. It is impossible to tell with certainty, of course, but it seems likely that their prior understanding of the term would lead them to consider the LOGOS primarily a "part" of God, though in what sense, they could only wait for John to explain. This seems particularly likely, given that the Wisdom tradition was also poetic in nature. Thus, John audience would have understood that in the Beginning, God has with Him His creative Word - the Word by which He spoke the universe into existence. They would, at this point, perhaps have more readily thought of the Word as yet another poetic personification of an attribute of God; it is unlikely they would have assumed that the Word that was intimately with God was another god, a secondary created being, whose creation appears nowhere in this passage, and whose existence stretches back before the beginning of creation.

"The Word was with God." The personal distinction between God and the Word is clearly expressed. The words "Word" and "God" in the Greek are both preceded by the article, specifying a personal reference. This phrase presents significant difficulties to Modalists. The word behind "with" denotes an intimate, personal relationship. It might almost be translated "toward," an idea echoed in verse 18, where Son is said to be "in the bosom of the Father." John's audience would now be confronted with a clear statement that the LOGOS is more than a mere personification of a divine attribute: The LOGOS is a personal being, just as the Father is.

"And the Word was God." Here we have what are certainly the most widely discussed five words in the Bible. Is John here declaring that the Word is God the Father? A secondary, lesser god? Or One who possesses Deity in the same measure as the Father, but is also distinct from the Father? The word "LOGOS" is, again, preceded by the article. But the word "God" is not. While Greek possesses the definite article ("the"), it does not have an indefinite article ("a, an"). In Greek, the absence of the article usually signifies indefiniteness; however the grammar here makes that unlikely (see Grammatical Analysis, below). Definiteness is also a possibility, and indeed, many commentators and some grammarians see "God" here as a definite noun. There is a third option: Qualitative. Qualitative nouns occur in sentences like John 1:1c throughout the NT. They signify neither definiteness ("the God"), nor indefiniteness ("a god"), but rather attribute all the qualities or attributes of the noun to the subject of the sentence. If "God" is qualitative, here, it means that all the attributes or qualities of God - the same God mentioned in the previous clause - belong to the Son.

Consider the sentence: "Homo Erectus was Man." Here "Man" is neither definite ("the Man") nor indefinite ("a man"), but rather qualitative. If I made this statement to an evolutionist, I would be asserting that our ancient ancestor possessed all the qualities or attributes of humanity. I am saying he is truly human. Similarly, John is saying that the LOGOS is truly God - not the same Person mentioned in the previous clause - but possessing the same attributes or qualities.

The majority of grammarians who have written on this subject view "God" in 1:1c as qualitative, though some older grammarians did not use this term. Some grammarians and most commentators regard "God" in 1:1c as definite, though their interpretations of this verse are much the same as those who see it as qualitative. Ultimately, grammar and context must determine John's intention, and both, it will be argued below, point conclusively to this verse being accurately paraphrased as follows:

"In the beginning of all creation, the Word was already in existence. The Word was intimately with God. And the Word was as to His essence, fully God."

"In the beginning" recalls the opening words of Genesis 1:1: "In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth." The expression does not refer to a particular moment of time but assumes a timeless eternity. "Word" is the Greek logos, which has several meanings. Ordinarily it refers to a spoken word, with emphasis on the meaning conveyed, not just the sound. Logos, therefore, is an expression of personality in communication. Scripture also tells us that it is creative in its power: "By the word [logos, LXX] of the Lord were the heavens made, their starry host by the breath of his mouth" (Ps 33:6). This verse clearly implies that the expression of God had creative power and called the universe into being. To the Hebrew "the word of God" was the self-assertion of the divine personality; to the Greek the formula denoted the rational mind that ruled the universe. John is asserting that the "Word" is the source of all that is visible and antedates the totality of the material world.

The use of logos implies that John was endeavoring to bring out the full significance of the Incarnation to the Gentile world as well as to the Jewish people. He does not adopt the Greek concept in its entirety, but he uses this term to indicate that Jesus had universal rather than local significance and that he spoke with ultimate authority. He was preexistent, involved in the act of creation, and therefore superior to all created beings. This presentation lifts Christ above the materialistic, pagan concept of deities just as the Incarnation brings the Hebrew concept of God into everyday life.

The preposition "with" in the phrase "the Word was with God" indicates both equality and distinction of identity along with association. The phrase can be rendered "face to face with." It may, therefore, imply personality, coexistence with the Creator, and yet be an expression of his creative being. The position of the noun God in the Greek text marks it as a predicate, stressing description rather than individualization. The "Word" was deity, one with God, rather than "a god" or another being of the same class. This is the real meaning of the phrase. Unity of nature rather than similarity or likeness is implied. The external coexistence and unity of the Word with God is unmistakably asserted (EBC).
Its the whole reason why the Word is called a different Greek word than the true God was called at John 1:1--God and god
Same at 2 Cor 4:4 God and god--The Word and satan both called the same exact Greek word while the true God was called a different word. The only humanly possible difference = God and god. Both have godlike qualities, they are not the true God=The Father alone.
 

servant1

Active Member
The Septuagint: LXX is greek
Obviously translated from Catholicism translating then. Catholicism removed Gods name and replaced it against Gods will with titles-GOD or LORD( all capitols)--removed Gods name by satan's will to mislead, and it is doing just that.
 
Its the whole reason why the Word is called a different Greek word than the true God was called at John 1:1--God and god
Same at 2 Cor 4:4 God and god--The Word and satan both called the same exact Greek word while the true God was called a different word. The only humanly possible difference = God and god. Both have godlike qualities, they are not the true God=The Father alone.
In Greek grammar, a predicate nominative is a noun or pronoun that follows a linking verb and renames the subject of a sentence:
Definition
A predicate nominative is a word or group of words that renames the subject of a sentence after a linking verb.
Purpose
A predicate nominative provides more information about the subject or renames it.
Example
In the sentence Ὁ ἀνήρ διδάσκαλος ἐστίν ("The man is a teacher"), διδάσκαλος (teacher) is the predicate nominative because it renames the subject ὁ ἀνήρ (the man).
Case
The nominative case must match the subject in gender, number, and case.
Importance
Understanding the predicate nominative is essential for understanding the meaning and sentence structure of Ancient Greek texts.
The predicate nominative often comes after a linking verb, such as "to be" (ειμί). The predicate position often emphasizes the information.

Lesson 4 | The Greek Article and Pronouns​

Grammar Point 3: Predicate Nominatives​

Thus far in this course, you have learned that nominative nouns primarily serve as a verb’s subject. However, there is an additional role that a nominative noun can play when the main verb is a being verb. Action verbs have a subject in the nominative and a direct object in the accusative. Being verbs (like γίνομαι and εἰμί) have a subject in the nominative. However, instead of an accusative direct object, they have a predicate noun in the nominative case as well. This predicate noun is called the predicate nominative.
Look, for example, at the first clause of Colossians 1:18.

1565479100474-4-7a-diagram.png


You can see that we have a being verb (έστιν from εἰμί) and two nominative nouns: αὐτός and ἡ κεφαλή. The pronoun αὐτός is the subject nominative. But what about the other nominative noun: ἡ κεφαλή? It is the predicate nominative. In other words, this second nominative noun predicates or states something about the subject nominative. Look at another example from the last clause of John 1:1.

1565479136091-4-7b-diagram.png


Here again you see that we have a being verb (ἦν from εἰμί) and two nominative nouns: ὁ λόγος and θέος. ὁ λόγος is the subject nominative, and θέος is the predicate nominative. θέος predicates or states something about the Word: “The Word was God.”
But how do we know which nominative noun is the subject and which is the predicate nominative? The general rule is that the more definite noun is the subject nominative. The following list orders different types of nouns. At #1, pronouns are the most definite and will always be the subject nominative. At #4, nouns without the article (as long as that noun is not a pronoun or a name) will probably be the predicate nominative unless the other nominative also lacks the article.
  1. Pronouns
  2. Noun with the article
  3. Name
  4. Noun without the article
So, with John 1:1, λόγος is more definite because it has the article. So, the sentence means: “the Word was God” rather than “God was the Word.”


arrow_backPrevious stepNext steparrow_forward
 
The Predicate Position

If we divide a sentence into two parts, one containing the subject, and one containing the verbal idea, the latter is called the predicate.

When the verb is an action verb, the predicate may contain direct objects and indirect objects. As noted in lesson 3, Greek would use the accusative case and the dative case respectively for these.

But when the verb is a linking verb, in Greek as in English those nouns in the predicate that are connected with the subject by means of the linking verb are nominatives.

In Greek as in English, a linking verb takes a Predicate Nominative or a Predicate Adjective.

"He is the boss"The noun "boss" is a predicate nominative
"She is thrifty"The adjective "thrifty" is a predicate adjective
In the two examples above, notice that there is nothing about the form of the words "boss" or "thrifty" that would indicate they are in the nominative case. But when a 1st or 3rd person pronoun is used as a predicate nominative, the form will indicate that it is in the nominative case:

"The boy in the photograph is I.""I" is correct rather than "me" because it is a predicate nominative.
"The good students are they who study.""They" is correct rather than "them" because it is a predicate nominative.

So also in Greek, "The word is good" could be written with a linking verb and a predicate adjective in the nominative case:

ὁ λόγος ἐστὶν ἀγαθόςἀγαθός is a predicate adjective
and therefore is in the nominative case,
just as is the subject.
but not​
ὁ λόγος ἐστὶν ἀγαθόνAccusative ἀγαθόν is incorrect.
However, if an adjective in the nominative case stands in the predicate position, the verb can be and often is omitted without changing the meaning of the sentence.

The word is good.
ὁ λόγος ἀγαθός
Definite Article | Noun | Adjective
Alternatively, we could write,

ἀγαθὸς ὁ λόγος
Adjective | Definite Article | Noun
With either word order, the adjective is in the predicate position. Notice that what is characteristic of the predicate position, other than the nominative case, is the absence of the article immediately preceding the adjective.

In summary,



ὁ ἀγαθὸς λόγος
ὁ λόγος ὁ ἀγαθός
rtbrace.gif
the good wordattributive position
ὁ λόγος ἀγαθός
ἀγαθὸς ὁ λόγος
rtbrace.gif
the word is goodpredicate position
An ambiguity arises when there is no definite article at all, either before the noun or before the adjective. In such cases, the adjective may be attributive or it may be part of the predicate. You will be dependent upon the larger context to determine whether or not a copulative should be supplied in your translation.

ἀγαθὸς λόγος- attributive or predicate
λόγος ἀγαθός- attributive or predicate
 
Distinguishing the Subject from the Predicate Nominative

Given that case rather than word order determines syntax, if there are two nominatives one of which can be assumed to be a predicate nominative, how do we know which one is the subject and which one is the predicate, and does it matter?

Notice that in the examples of predicate constructions above, the predicate is anarthrous. Even in the ambiguous situation, the definite article is absent. Mark it down that in every instance where we need to construe one nominative as the predicate nominative, the predicate nominative is anarthrous. This will also be true when the copula is explicit. Accordingly, if one nominative is articular and the other is anarthrous, the anarthrous nominative is in the predicate, and the articular nominative is the subject. Pronouns by virtue of their reference to an antecedent are specific even without a definite article. Hence, we can also say that if one nominative is a pronoun and the other is anarthrous, the anarthrous nominative is in the predicate, and the pronoun is the subject.

Why does it matter? Consider the following

ὁ θεὸς φῶς ἐστιν (1 Jn 1:5)Both nominatives precede the verb. If "light" is the subject, the sentence would say that whatever is light can be said to be God, and that is not true. But the fact that "light" is anarthrous while "God" is articular confirms that the meaning is "God is light."
the - god (2nd decl. nom.) - light (3rd decl. nom.) - is
θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος (Jn 1:1)The fact that "word" is articular while "God" is anarthrous makes it clear that John is telling us something about the word, namely, that the word was God.
god (2nd decl. nom.) - was - the - word (2nd decl. nom.)


 

Exegetical Insight​


The nominative case is the case that the subject is in. When the subject takes an equative verb like “is” (i.e., a verb that equates the subject with something else), then another noun also appears in the nominative caseąthe predicate nominative. In the sentence, “John is a man,” “John” is the subject and “man” is the predicate nominative. In English the subject and predicate nominative are distinguished by word order (the subject comes first). Not so in Greek. Since word order in Greek is quite flexible and is used for emphasis rather than for strict grammatical function, other means are used to distinguish subject from predicate nominative. For example, if one of the two nouns has the definite article, it is the subject.
As we have said, word order is employed especially for the sake of emphasis. Generally speaking, when a word is thrown to the front of the clause it is done so for emphasis. When a predicate nominative is thrown in front of the verb, by virtue of word order it takes on emphasis. A good illustration of this is John 1:1c. The English versions typically have, “and the Word was God.” But in Greek, the word order has been reversed. It reads,
kai; qeo;V h\n oJ lovgoV
and God was the Word.
We know that “the Word” is the subject because it has the definite article, and we translate it accordingly: “and the Word was God.” Two questions, both of theological import, should come to mind: (1) why was qeovV thrown forward? and (2) why does it lack the article?
In brief, its emphatic position stresses its essence or quality: “What God was, the Word was” is how one translation brings out this force. Its lack of a definite article keeps us from identifying the person of the Word (Jesus Christ) with the person of “God” (the Father). That is to say, the word order tells us that Jesus Christ has all the divine attributes that the Father has; lack of the article tells us that Jesus Christ is not the Father. John’s wording here is beautifully compact! It is, in fact, one of the most elegantly terse theological statements one could ever find. As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism.
To state this another way, look at how the different Greek constructions would be rendered:
kai; oJ lovgoV h\n oJ qeovV
“and the Word was the God” (i.e., the Father; Sabellianism)
kai; oJ lovgoV h\n qeovV
“and the Word was a god” (Arianism)
kai; qeo;V h\n oJ lovgoV
“and the Word was God” (Orthodoxy).
Jesus Christ is God and has all the attributes that the Father has. But he is not the first person of the Trinity. All this is concisely affirmed in kai; qeo;V h\n oJ lovgoV.
Daniel B. Wallace
 

Balthazzar

N. Germanic Descent
I believe the trinity is false. God is not a trinity. Proof?

1 Corinthians 14.33

For God is not the author of confusion

The trinity create confusion.

And

Exodus 20.5
You shall not bow down to them or worship them; for I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God

According to the trinity God has three I. But according to Exodus 20.5 God has only one I

Hosea 4:6 suggest that Gods people are destroyed for lack of knowledge. Why is the trinity confusing? According to life we have parents as children and how we understand the experience as living souls.

God = Parents
Son = Offspring
Holy Spirit = Truth/reality
 

The Apparent Difference in Spelling

First of all, the same Greek word is used in both occurrences of the word "God" in John 1:1. This same word is used in many contexts, whether it refers to the Only True God or whether it is referring to a false god - such as a man-made god (1 Cor. 8:5) or Satan as the ‘god of this age’ (2 Cor. 4:4). The apparent differences in spelling between the word ‘God’ in the phrase ‘and the Word was God’ (‘theos’) and in other places, (even in the previous phrase, ‘and the Word was with God’ (‘theon’)) is due to inflection in the Greek language. Each Greek noun normally has 8 or 9 forms (cases & number) in which it can appear. (See my page on ‘Inflection’ and ‘Cases’ on the Web site). In the first instance in John 1:1 it is the object of preposition and thus is in the accusative case. In the phrase in question, it is in the nominative case (indicating the subject or predicate nominative - equal to the subject). But it is the same word for ‘God’, and in both phrases here indicates the One and Only True God. So the apparent difference is spelling is not because ‘theos’ is a different word than ‘theon’, but is a different form of the identical word.

The Lack of a Greek Definite Article

Another common confusion in John 1:1 comes from the fact that in Greek there is no definite article in front of the word ‘God’ (‘theos’) in the phrase ‘and the Word was God’. The confusion arises from an assumption that if there is no definite article in the Greek, then it must have an indefinite meaning and thus should be translated with the indefinite article "a". Based on this understanding, some argue that this phrase in John 1:1 should be translated "the word was a god," rather than "the word was God." It is important at this point to understand that the Greek language has a definite article (‘the’), but does not have an indefinite article (‘a’ or ‘an’). In certain instances, when the Greek omits a definite article, it may be appropriate to insert an indefinite article for the sake of the English translation and understanding. But we cannot assume that this is always appropriate. Greek does not operate in the same way as English does in regard to the use of the words ‘the’ and ‘a’. In many instances in which English would not include the word ‘the’, the Greek text includes it. (We don’t see it in the English translations because it would sound non-sensible in our language.) (See Note 1, below.) And in many cases where the Greek omits the definite article, the English translation requires it to convey the correct meaning of the Greek. (See Note 2, below.) Therefore it cannot be assumed that if the definite article is absent, then an indefinite article should be inserted. (For a clear illustration of this, see an example of the use of the word ‘God’ and the definite article in John chapter one.) Furthermore, even though the Greek language does not have an ‘indefinite article’ like we think of in English, there is a way in Greek for the writer to indicate the indefinite idea and thus avoid confusion. This is done in Greek by using the Greek indefinite pronoun ‘tis’.
In John 1:1 there is no definite article in front of the word ‘God’ in the phrase, ‘and the Word was God’. However, in this instance, it cannot just be assumed that the word ‘God’ is meant to be ‘indefinite’, and therefore an indefinite article used in the English translation. Because the first use of the word ‘God’ in John 1:1 (‘the Word was with God’) clearly refers to the Only True God, the Eternal Pre-existent Creator, more than likely John would have used a different Greek construction than he did if he had meant for this next phrase (‘and the Word was God’) to refer to a ‘lesser’ god, and did not want us to confuse this with the True God he had just mentioned. If John meant to avoid confusion, when making such a definitive statement, he could have done so by using this ‘indefinite pronoun’ (‘tis’) as an adjective. This would have made it clear that the Word was ‘a certain god’, but not the one he was just referring to. For examples of this, see the verses Mark 14:51, Luke 8:27, Luke 1:5, and Luke 11:1 (among many, many other examples). So, it seems that by the Greek grammatical structure in this statement, John is indicating that the Word (Jesus Christ - John 1:14) is the same essence and nature as God the Father.
(For a more thorough explanation of the function and use of the Greek article (and meaning of its absence), see ‘Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics’, by Daniel Wallace. He includes fifty pages - entitled ‘The Article, Part I’ - which is a more complete treatment of the subject that many grammar books present and explains all the general uses of the article. He actually has a ‘Part II’ which discusses some special issues with the article. Fifteen pages of this second section apply directly to understanding this passage in John 1:1. It is highly recommended for those who really desire an honest and thorough understanding of this passage.)

The Predicate Coming Before the Subject

Also, this phrase in John 1:1 is an example of a predicate nominative coming first in the sentence, before the subject. (Sentences like this one that use a linking verb require the noun in the predicate part of the sentence to be in the nominative case. Thus the phrase 'predicate nominative'.) The subject of this clause is ‘the Word’ and the predicate is ‘God’. In Greek, the word ‘God’ comes before the word ‘Word’. According to normal Greek usage (Colwell's Rule), the word ‘God’ should not have a definite article. Oftentimes, emphasis is shown in Greek by placing a word out of its normal, expected word order. Special emphasis is shown when the predicate comes first in the sentence. In other words, contrary to the thought that ‘since there is no definite article used here it could belittle the fact of the Word being God’, the fact that the word ‘God’ is used first in the sentence actually shows some emphasis that this Logos (Word) was in fact God in its nature. However, since it does not have the definite article, it does indicate that this Word was not the same ‘person’ as the Father God, but has the same ‘essence’ and ‘nature’.

The Context of All of the Apostle John’s Writings

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servant1

Active Member
In Greek grammar, a predicate nominative is a noun or pronoun that follows a linking verb and renames the subject of a sentence:
Definition
A predicate nominative is a word or group of words that renames the subject of a sentence after a linking verb.
Purpose
A predicate nominative provides more information about the subject or renames it.
Example
In the sentence Ὁ ἀνήρ διδάσκαλος ἐστίν ("The man is a teacher"), διδάσκαλος (teacher) is the predicate nominative because it renames the subject ὁ ἀνήρ (the man).
Case
The nominative case must match the subject in gender, number, and case.
Importance
Understanding the predicate nominative is essential for understanding the meaning and sentence structure of Ancient Greek texts.
The predicate nominative often comes after a linking verb, such as "to be" (ειμί). The predicate position often emphasizes the information.

Lesson 4 | The Greek Article and Pronouns​

Grammar Point 3: Predicate Nominatives​

Thus far in this course, you have learned that nominative nouns primarily serve as a verb’s subject. However, there is an additional role that a nominative noun can play when the main verb is a being verb. Action verbs have a subject in the nominative and a direct object in the accusative. Being verbs (like γίνομαι and εἰμί) have a subject in the nominative. However, instead of an accusative direct object, they have a predicate noun in the nominative case as well. This predicate noun is called the predicate nominative.
Look, for example, at the first clause of Colossians 1:18.

1565479100474-4-7a-diagram.png


You can see that we have a being verb (έστιν from εἰμί) and two nominative nouns: αὐτός and ἡ κεφαλή. The pronoun αὐτός is the subject nominative. But what about the other nominative noun: ἡ κεφαλή? It is the predicate nominative. In other words, this second nominative noun predicates or states something about the subject nominative. Look at another example from the last clause of John 1:1.

1565479136091-4-7b-diagram.png


Here again you see that we have a being verb (ἦν from εἰμί) and two nominative nouns: ὁ λόγος and θέος. ὁ λόγος is the subject nominative, and θέος is the predicate nominative. θέος predicates or states something about the Word: “The Word was God.”
But how do we know which nominative noun is the subject and which is the predicate nominative? The general rule is that the more definite noun is the subject nominative. The following list orders different types of nouns. At #1, pronouns are the most definite and will always be the subject nominative. At #4, nouns without the article (as long as that noun is not a pronoun or a name) will probably be the predicate nominative unless the other nominative also lacks the article.
  1. Pronouns
  2. Noun with the article
  3. Name
  4. Noun without the article
So, with John 1:1, λόγος is more definite because it has the article. So, the sentence means: “the Word was God” rather than “God was the Word.”


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Many Greek scholars in history translated the NT and had a god at John 1:1, 3 had was divine, 1 had was godlike. Of course all those translations were rejected by those using error translations. That single fact of a god proves all those religions are false religions, misleading all to not enter Gods kingdom by breaking Gods #1 commandment daily.
 
Hosea 4:6 suggest that Gods people are destroyed for lack of knowledge. Why is the trinity confusing? According to life we have parents as children and how we understand the experience as living souls.

God = Parents
Son = Offspring
Holy Spirit = Truth/reality
The son of God is not a created being.
 
Obviously translated from Catholicism translating then. Catholicism removed Gods name and replaced it against Gods will with titles-GOD or LORD( all capitols)--removed Gods name by satan's will to mislead, and it is doing just that.
The LXX 285-246 BC translated from Hebrew to Greek and existed before Christ. friend.
 
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