I think the confusion is arising from the pecularity of terms used in Hindu science and their improper translations into English.
Yes, I had a feeling that was the case.
effect to cause, cause to effect
Would
modus tollens and
modus ponens respectively be accurate translations here?
Then another type of reasoning is used to infer cause from effect where only the effect is observed in experience, but not the cause.
I think
abduction is a reasonable translation for this.
There are two methods of knowledge recognised in philosophy of science: empiricism and rationalism. The empiricists maintain that all knowledge that is valid can only be known in experience and nothing which cannot be empirically verified is valid knowledge. Thus all knowledge is posteriori. The rationalists maintain that not all knowledge is empirical, that we have another faculty of reason which gives us knowledge not known to through empirical means.
Ok I understand what you mean now.
Modern science is a bizarre mixture of the two. It uses empiricism in order observe facts, but then explains those facts using the hypothetica-deductive mehod.
Remember empiricism is a philosophy not a method. Science is empirical but not governed by empiricism, just like science uses falsification but is not governed by falsificationism (as Popper would have liked).
Also, this following quote is more accurate than the picture the previous one paints:
A hypothesis is posited and then that hypothesis is rationalized by fitting the empirical data to fit it (anamolus data is rejected unless it reaches statistical significance)
Yes, this is accurate. But an important note is that the hypothesis should make testable and falsifiable predictions.
The hypothesis is maintained as the null hypothesis untill the data no longer fits, then it is revised or discarded. This is why modern science is not rational, for its theories are based on conjecture. This is why the theories end up getting falsified.
I would modify this. First, science is rational but it is not based on
rationalism (see my empirical/empiricism distinction). Rational simply means agreeing with reason, as in not
irrational. Second, its
theories are not based on
conjecture; its
hypotheses are based on
conjecture.
Theories, on the other hand, must have sufficient evidence to support them so speaking from definition they cannot be
based on conjecture. Third,
some theories "end up getting falsified" because they no longer produce accurate predictions not because of irrationality (as implied by "not rational") nor due to being "based on conjecture" which they are not.
Hindu science is rational and not empirical.
Although you say this the next line discounts it:
Although all knowledge in Hindu science begins from an observation, the observation could be as simple as the fact as something happens -
And yet this is still empirical even if it may not be inductive. Also your use of rational invites accusations of conflation.
"Here is an effect, this means there must be a cause" and then Hindu science deduces the rest through pure reasoning step by step.
I disagree that this is possible. I would like an example.
So there is no theorizing in Hindu science, in fact it called an invalid means of knowledge because any conjecture of the mind is conditioned by assumptions (an argument also put forward by Popper)
The hindu atomic model is a theory. Were talking in the scientific sense so these words have different meaning than in the colloquial sense. You mean to say there is no hypothesizing. It is still very difficult to believe that that would allow any significant science to be done. The problem is that biases and assumptions are present whether you believe they are or not.
The burden lies with the claimant always.
You are the claimant. In this discussion, you are hypothesizing a novel entity separate from matter (the observer) and are doing so in disagreement with Mitch, Copernicus, Ellen and myself. You are making an ontologically positive claim, namely that observer is a category separate from matter and causes matter. I am claiming that you are unnecessarily multiplying entities (to paraphrase Ockham). Simply taking into account parsimony, you are the one complicating things.
Materialism is not default, because it is not established.
Im going to ignore this because I already said regardless of what we consider the default position.
It is a fallacy for the materialist to claim that they have no beliefs or faith, this is false, they believe in materialism, they believe everything, including consciousness is matter.
I agree with you that anyone who believes in materialism according to definition is a moron. Matter, energy, space/time, concepts, and transcendentals are all existing categories. Furthermore, no one in this thread claimed that matter=consciousness. Ill expand on this below.
When there is no evidence at all that consciousness is matter, they are known to be distinct substances. The burden of proof lies with the materialist to prove consciousness is matter. Just as the burden of proof lies with the flat earther to prove the earth is flat or the young earther to prove the earth is young.
Surya, assuming your straw man that consciousness=matter, the fact is that the vast majority of scientists believe that to be the case and it is you that is making the
non-parsimonious, ontologically positive claim and is also
arguing a minority opinion. I challenge you to give me an example of a situation where a newcomer, with a new and different idea, that throws out an ontologically simple theory for a more complex one, would ever
not have the burden of proof.
The basic fact that no materialist ever has been able to prove that matter and consciousness are the same thing.
Remember the argument from ignorance is a fallacy.
As for naturalism (materialist is outdated and wrong) there are several lines of evidence that I believe make this the preferred conclusion. First I would like to modify that straw man you keep bringing up. The naturalist position is not that matter=consciousness but rather that
mental states supervene on brain states. Now for the evidence:
1) Brain damage impairs mental function
a) Brain damage can affect personality permanently
2) Chemicals (drugs, hormones, and cytokines etc.) change and impair mental function.
3) Changes in electrical states in the brain (via Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation for example) can change:
a) Memory
b) Attitude
c) Decisions
The above shows, at the very least, that the brain is inherently tied to and affects the mind. Other supporting evidence is how the mind affects the brain but that is easy to come up with. Now for the evidence of causation and not correlation:
4) Changes in electrical activity
predict (and
precede) changes in mental activity
How your observer is caused by the measurable activity of the brain yet still causes it? Is there another observer homunculus?
5) The results of certain other experiments:
a) Blindsight a condition where people are aware of something they cannot see
An experiment was conducted where a patient made rational decisions while unable to consciously know why. This shows that consciousness is not required for at least some decision making. That is, the brain makes decisions and the mind reacts to them
b) Split brain a treatment for some neurological conditions where the corpus callosum
These patients manifest what would apparently be two consciousnesses (two observers) in one brain. Given different sensory input the two hemispheres of the brain make different decisions and the left hemisphere (the one with the capacity for speech) invents out of whole cloth (rationalizes) the decision of the other half. So not only does the non-conscious brain actually process information and make decisions but splitting the brain can split the mind into
independent observers.
The most obvious conclusion is that the brain is the cause of consciousness. You dont have to believe me, I can supply all the peer-reviewed academic papers that show these conclusions.