Because of belonging to a recognisable class of historical figures tied to recognisable religious movements that have emerged over many centuries in many different cultures.
Jesus belongs to a class of fictional beings. Only Hellenistic cultures had savior deities.
"All Mystery religions have personal savior deities
- All saviors
- all son/daughter, never the supreme God (including Mithriasm)
- all undergo a passion (struggle) patheon
- all obtain victory over death which they share with followers
- all have stories set on earth
- none actually existed
- Is Jesus the exception and based on a real Jewish teacher or is it all made up?
They also have baptism rituals, Eucharist tradition and are a very distinct group. Only in nations invaded by Hellenistic Greeks.
The extent to which that is the best way to look at it is debatable, but doesn’t matter too much for this point unless you think a deified human would be unlikely to take on some of the characteristics of the divinities in their cultural environment.
Yes there could have been a man who was used, the evidence is 3 to 1 in favor of total myth according to the latest historicity study done by a PhD in the field. This looked at all of the evidence. It has nothing to do with what a non-expert "thinks" about a defied human becoming mythified.
No as we wouldn’t expect such a god to be seen as a god pretty close to his purported lifetime.
Wholesale fabrications seem to emerge in different time scales whereas deified humans seem to be closer to their actual lives.
First, what are your sources?
Next, Romulus was a man living during the time of his writings, he dies, rose again and so on. It was all fiction. In fact Mark looks to have used Romulus in part to create his narrative. Mark transfigurated Romulus making Jesus a peaceful savior. There are 20 points of similar plot points between the 2.
It would be very unusual as I see it.
If you disagree, name some other whole cloth fabrications who emerged in pretty much real time.
On the other hand humans who were deified often do appear in or close to their lifetimes.
That isn't true and you have given no sources anyways. Plutarch writes on the popularity of this - euhemerization, the taking of a cosmic god and placing him at a definite point in history as an actual person who was later deified.
He writes on Isis and Osirus. It was done with many Gods, Romulus, and in one version of Ascension of Isaiah Jesus battles Satan and is resurrected in one of the upper relams.
The cosmology back then was different, they believed there were many levels, each more divine than the last and there was a perfect celestial copy of everything on Earth up in a celestial realm.
Isaiah goes into a trance and is transported through the upper realms. These specific deities always underwent some type of passion and he saw Jesus undergo this with Satan and was resurrected. Jesus later comes down to earth to spread the news.
Such as a brother? Perhaps we could call him James…
We cannot know what Paul means in that passage. In context he does need to distinguish between regular christians who he calls "brothers in the Lord" in other passages. He does not use the Greek word for biological brother. At best we cannot know so this does not count as a historicity clue. There is a much longer and detailed discussion on this topic in journals and books.
"
Whether Paul is actually lying about any of this is not relevant to what Paul wants the Galatians to think and thus what Paul means to say here. And what he means to say is that no one in Judea ever met him. He swears to this most emphatically (Gal. 1.20). He admits there were only two exceptions, Peter and James, and only for a brief time (and that years after he saw the Lord personally). But in saying so, why didn’t Paul just say ‘of them that were apostles before me [1.17] I met none except Peter and James [1.18-19]’? Why does he construct the convoluted sentence ‘I consulted with Peter, but another of the apostles I did not see, except James’? As L. Paul Trudinger puts it, ‘this would certainly be an odd way for Paul to say that he saw only two apostles, Peter and James’.[n. 98] To say that, a far simpler sentence would do. So why the complex sentence instead? Paul could perhaps mean that he
consulted with Peter (
historeô) but only
saw James (
eidô)—that is, he didn’t discuss anything with James. But if that were his point, he would make sure to emphasize it, since that would be essential to his argument. Yet he doesn’t. In fact, if he is saying that he saw
none of the other apostles, that would entail he was claiming he did not
consult with any, either.
So it’s just as likely, if not more so, that Paul means he met only the apostle Peter and only one other Judean Christian, a certain ‘brother James’. By calling him a brother of the Lord instead of an apostle, Paul is thus distinguishing this James from any apostles of the same name—just as we saw he used ‘brothers of the Lord’ to distinguish regular Christians from apostles in 1 Cor. 9.5. Indeed, this would explain his rare use of the complete phrase in only those two places: he otherwise uses the truncated ‘brother’ of his fellow Christians; yet every time he specifically distinguishes apostles from non-apostolic Christians he uses the
full title for a member of the Christian congregation, ‘brother
of the Lord’. This would be especially necessary to distinguish in such contexts ‘brothers of the apostles’ (which would include kin who were not believers) from ‘brothers of the Lord’, which also explains why he doesn’t truncate the phrase in precisely those two places."