Sheldon
Veteran Member
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase "x" days and "x"nights was ever used in the first century or before when it didnt include at least parts of the "x" days and at least parts of the "x" nights?
Since Mathew is a fictitious name added centuries later, and the text the name was assigned to is hearsay at best, this seems like an odd double standard, to demand "documented evidence"?
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