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P M sentShiranui117, cataway, allright, I.S.L.A.M617,
Do any of you know of any writing as requested in the OP?
I'm going to ask you to read Matthew 24 and I'll ask of you when he made his presents known.
as for clouds ,clouds have a symbolic meaning, clouds conceal,restrict your eye's from being able to see what you may know is there.
to SEE can also mean to understandIt says they will SEE him coming in the clouds, and wail, presumably because it is now too late - and it mentions trumpet blasts.
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trumpet blasts are pronouncements,proclamations , messages that are given as warnings.It says they will SEE him coming in the clouds, and wail, presumably because it is now too late - and it mentions trumpet blasts.
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are you wanting a scripture that uses 3 days and 3 nights?cataway,
re: "P M sent"
I'm afraid I don't see where your PM provides an actual example from the first century or before that shows a phrase stating a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where it absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specified number of days and at least a part of each one of the specified number of nights.
Ingledsva said:It says they will SEE him coming in the clouds, and wail, presumably because it is now too late - and it mentions trumpet blasts.
to SEE can also mean to understand
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase "x" days and "x"nights was ever used in the first century or before when it didnt include at least parts of the "x" days and at least parts of the "x" nights?
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase "x" days and "x"nights was ever used in the first century or before when it didn’t include at least parts of the "x" days and at least parts of the "x" nights?
they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day.
Three "days" was a Jewish idiom that could refer to parts of those days or nights, BUT the term three days AND three nights means exactly what is says.