I have studied them very carefully....what about you?Are they really errors? Or is there an error within your interpretation when considering the context.
Let me give you an example of doctrinal bias at its best using John 1:1 (the most quoted verse in support of the trinity)
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." KJV
The use of capitals is to indicate the deity of Jesus as the Word.....right? So the Word was "God? But there are no Capital letters in Greek. Its is all one case.
Now turn to John 1:18...
"No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him."
What do you see? Something that agrees with John 1:1...right?......Wrong.
What is interpreted as "only begotten Son" in that verse uses the same word "theos" where "Son" has been rendered incorrectly. It literally reads "only begotten god" which when you think about it, is contradictory. Not only is it telling us point blank that "no one has seen God at any time", (thousands saw Jesus) it is suggesting that God is "begotten". Anything living that is "begotten" needs a "begetter" who existed before them....one who gave them life. The Word (Logos meaning spokesman, or one who speaks words for another) was in heaven "with God" before being sent on his earthly mission.
The NASB more correctly renders that verse...
"No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him."
Jesus is described as "the beginning of God's creation" in Revelation 3:14 and at Colossians 1:15 he is called "the first born of all creation"....so Jesus cannot be God because he had a beginning....he was "begotten" by his Father.
If KJV translates "Son in verse 18, then it should also translate "Son" in verse 1, which would read...
"In the Beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was the Son."
This is bias in translation where it can be clearly seen.