Torath Mosheh Jews and Paul and the Law

[David Davidovich]

This a speculative question for only Torath Mosheh Jews/Orthodox Jews since it concerns the Christian Apostle Paul. Therefore, there isn't a wrong or right answer to this question. Also, this Christian apostle, at one time was a very pious Torah-following Jew known as Saul of Tarsus. Therefore, I would like to ask: What is your take on Paul's view of the Torah Law of Moses? Also, below is a quote from an article, which will give you an idea of what his viewpoint was of the Law:

According to Paul the law has a dual role. Its first role is to instruct or educate us concerning how our Father wants us to live our life. Its second role is to convict us of sin (the judicial role) and lead us to conversion through faith in Christ. Once converted this role is no longer needed. In Galatians, Paul tells the church to allow God to teach them, "Let me ask those of you who want to be subject to the Law: do you not hear what the Law says?" (Galatians 4:21).

By telling the church of God to pay attention to his law, the apostle is upholding its role to teach. Paul, however, also recognizes its judicial role. After stating Abraham's inheritance was given based on God's promise, Paul says,

What, then, was the purpose of the Law? It was added in order to show what wrongdoing is . . . (Galatians 3:19, TEV).​

The law of God was "added," meaning that at Mt. Sinai it was given in a codified form, in order to identify sin. In the book of Romans Paul uses another analogy to discuss its judicial role.

In the same way, my brethren, you also were made dead to the marriage law of the Old Covenant by the body of Christ in order for you to be married to another, Who was raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit to God (Romans 7:4).​

We, according to Paul, died to the law, meaning that its ability to identify us as sinners and demand our life in payment for our sins was fulfilled through the sacrifice of Jesus.

But now we have been released from the law because we have died to that in which we were held so that we might serve in newness of the spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter (Romans 7:6).​

​

click here: What Did Apostle Paul Teach about God's Law? (biblestudy.org)

 

[Clara Tea]

This a speculative question for only Torath Mosheh Jews/Orthodox Jews since it concerns the Christian Apostle Paul. Therefore, there isn't a wrong or right answer to this question. Also, this Christian apostle, at one time was a very pious Torah-following Jew known as Saul of Tarsus. Therefore, I would like to ask: What is your take on Paul's view of the Torah Law of Moses? Also, below is a quote from an article, which will give you an idea of what his viewpoint was of the Law:

click here: What Did Apostle Paul Teach about God's Law? (biblestudy.org)

To even begin to answer your question, I have to make several assumptions, among which are that:

1. God exists
2. All-knowing God knew that non-Jews would convert to Jews (sort of), and call themselves Christians. They didn't have to get a bris, or refrain from pork and shellfish, nor restrict milk and meat of the same animal, nor have strict food preparation laws about cleanliness, nor health inspections of food preparation by rabbis. But, essentially they are Jews (these Christians believe in the Ten Commandments (Old Testament), and study Genesis and other Old Testament books/chapters.
3. Jesus is the Messiah. That is not at all clear, because the original Jewish prophecy said that he would be of the tribe of Judah (David). Since God is the father of Jesus (if that is true), he could not be of the patrilineal line of Judah. However, he still might be of that line on his mother's side, and you will notice that the bible does consider his mother's line.

Since God knew the future, if he had wanted the bibles to be the same, He could have written them both in the Old Testament and not bother with a new religion.

This begs the question, why did God create a new religion for a new group of people (Christians)? I think that is because the old instructions for Jews no longer applied. Jews were told "eye for an eye." Christians were told to be peaceful.

In modern times, we see a stark difference between Jews and Christians. Christians have literally taken over the United States. The Religious Right was responsible for the election of Reagan, Bush, W. Bush, and Trump. Notice that all of those recent presidents have the power to launch nukes. Nukes have the power to destroy the world. Thus, it makes little sense to tell Jews not to nuke the world, but it makes a heck of a lot of sense to tell Christians not to do it.

Teachings of the Apostle Paul

Paul's message: "teach the message of faith, repentance, and baptism, to bear witness to the divine mission of the Savior, to outline man's relationship to Jesus and to God our Father, to strengthen testimonies, to define doctrine, and to reinforce the teachings of the Christian church." (Source: Church of Jesus Christ website, above).

What is the Law of Moses, and what are its commands? – DeeperStudy

Torah laws of Moses (source: deeper study website, above).

In this modern world, we have refrigeration. So, the dietary restrictions of Jews (in ancient times, before refrigeration) would have naturally have been different. We can eat foods today that would have been poisonous without refrigeration.

 

[Harel13]

To even begin to answer your question

Why ever would you even begin to answer the question? You're not a Torath Mosheh or Orthodox Jew. This question is very clearly not directed at you.

 

[paarsurrey]

This a speculative question for only Torath Mosheh Jews/Orthodox Jews since it concerns the Christian Apostle Paul. Therefore, there isn't a wrong or right answer to this question. Also, this Christian apostle, at one time was a very pious Torah-following Jew known as Saul of Tarsus. Therefore, I would like to ask: What is your take on Paul's view of the Torah Law of Moses? Also, below is a quote from an article, which will give you an idea of what his viewpoint was of the Law:

​

click here: What Did Apostle Paul Teach about God's Law? (biblestudy.org)

" this Christian apostle (Paul), at one time was a very pious Torah-following Jew known as Saul of Tarsus. "

Isn't it a wrong premises/assumption/hypothesis as per the Jewish Encylopedia, please?:
SAUL OF TARSUS - JewishEncyclopedia.com
Right?

Regards

 

[David Davidovich]

To even begin to answer your question, I have to make several assumptions, among which are that:

1. God exists
2. All-knowing God knew that non-Jews would convert to Jews (sort of), and call themselves Christians. They didn't have to get a bris, or refrain from pork and shellfish, nor restrict milk and meat of the same animal, nor have strict food preparation laws about cleanliness, nor health inspections of food preparation by rabbis. But, essentially they are Jews (these Christians believe in the Ten Commandments (Old Testament), and study Genesis and other Old Testament books/chapters.
3. Jesus is the Messiah. That is not at all clear, because the original Jewish prophecy said that he would be of the tribe of Judah (David). Since God is the father of Jesus (if that is true), he could not be of the patrilineal line of Judah. However, he still might be of that line on his mother's side, and you will notice that the bible does consider his mother's line.

Since God knew the future, if he had wanted the bibles to be the same, He could have written them both in the Old Testament and not bother with a new religion.

This begs the question, why did God create a new religion for a new group of people (Christians)? I think that is because the old instructions for Jews no longer applied. Jews were told "eye for an eye." Christians were told to be peaceful.

In modern times, we see a stark difference between Jews and Christians. Christians have literally taken over the United States. The Religious Right was responsible for the election of Reagan, Bush, W. Bush, and Trump. Notice that all of those recent presidents have the power to launch nukes. Nukes have the power to destroy the world. Thus, it makes little sense to tell Jews not to nuke the world, but it makes a heck of a lot of sense to tell Christians not to do it.

Teachings of the Apostle Paul

Paul's message: "teach the message of faith, repentance, and baptism, to bear witness to the divine mission of the Savior, to outline man's relationship to Jesus and to God our Father, to strengthen testimonies, to define doctrine, and to reinforce the teachings of the Christian church." (Source: Church of Jesus Christ website, above).

What is the Law of Moses, and what are its commands? – DeeperStudy

Torah laws of Moses (source: deeper study website, above).

In this modern world, we have refrigeration. So, the dietary restrictions of Jews (in ancient times, before refrigeration) would have naturally have been different. We can eat foods today that would have been poisonous without refrigeration.

All that is irrelevant, Clara Tea, since I specifically asked for onlyTorath Mosheh Jews/Orthodox Jews in my OP, which you actually quoted.

 

[David Davidovich]

" this Christian apostle (Paul), at one time was a very pious Torah-following Jew known as Saul of Tarsus. "

Isn't it a wrong premises/assumption/hypothesis as per the Jewish Encylopedia, please?:
SAUL OF TARSUS - JewishEncyclopedia.com
Right?

Regards

Even though, you do not specify yourself as a Torath Moses Jew, I thank you for your post and it is much appreciated. Plus, what is said in the Jewish Encyclopedia satisfied my curiosity in my OP question. Also, here is a quote:

Pes. 62b; M. Sachs, "Beiträge zur Sprach- und Alterthumsforschung," 1852, ii. 157). Nor is there any indication in Paul's writings or arguments that he had received the rabbinical training ascribed to him by Christian writers, ancient and modern; least of all could he have acted or written as he did had he been, as is alleged (Acts xxii. 3), the disciple of Gamaliel I., the mild Hillelite. His quotations from Scripture, which are all taken, directly or from memory, from the Greek version, betray no familiarity with the original Hebrew text. The Hellenistic literature, such as the Book of Wisdom and other Apocrypha, as well as Philo (see Hausrath, "Neutestamentliche Zeitgeschichte," ii. 18-27; Siegfried, "Philo von Alexandria," 1875, pp. 304-310; Jowett, "Commentary on the Thessalonians and Galatians," i. 363-417), was the sole source for his eschatological and theological system. Notwithstanding the emphatic statement, in Phil. iii. 5, that he was "a Hebrew of the Hebrews"—a rather unusual term, which seems to refer to his nationalistic training and conduct (comp. Acts xxi. 40, xxii. 2), since his Jewish birth is stated in the preceding words "of the stock of Israel"—he was, if any of the Epistles that bear his name are really his, entirely a Hellenist in thought and sentiment. As such he was imbued with the notion that "the whole creation groaneth" for liberation from "the prison-house of the body," from this earthly existence, which, because of its pollution by sin and death, is intrinsically evil (Gal. i. 4; Rom. v. 12, vii. 23-24, viii. 22; I Cor. vii. 31; II Cor. v. 2, 4; comp. Philo, "De Allegoriis Legum," iii. 75; idem, "De Vita Mosis," iii. 17; idem, "De Ebrietate," § 26; and Wisdom ii.24). As a Hellenist, also, he distinguished between an earthly and a heavenly Adam (I Cor. xv. 45-49; comp. Philo, "De Allegoriis Legum," i. 12), and, accordingly, between the lower psychic. life and the higher spiritual life attained only by asceticism (Rom. xii. 1; I Cor. vii. 1-31, ix. 27, xv. 50; comp. Philo, "De Profugis," § 17; and elsewhere). His whole state of mind shows the influence of the theosophic or Gnostic lore of Alexandria, especially the Hermes literature recently brought to light by Reizenstein in his important work "Poimandres," 1904 (see Index, s. v. "Paulus," "Briefe des Paulus," and "Philo"); hence his strange belief in supernatural powers (Reizenstein, l.c. pp. 77, 287), in fatalism, in "speaking in tongues" (I Cor. xii.-xiv.; comp. Reizenstein, l.c. p. 58; Dieterich, "Abraxas," pp. 5 et seq.; Weinel, "Die Wirkungen des Geistes und der Geister," 1899, pp. 72 et seq.; I Cor. xv. 8; II Cor. xii. 1-6; Eph. iii. 3), and in mysteries or sacraments (Rom. xvi. 25; Col. i. 26, ii. 2, iv. 3; Eph. i. 9, iii. 4, vi. 19)—a term borrowed solely from heathen rites.

Also, even though this thread is not in one of the debate subforums, I don't have a problem with others who are not Torath Mosheh Jews to comment on the quote above from the Jewish Encyclopedia.

 

[David Davidovich]

" this Christian apostle (Paul), at one time was a very pious Torah-following Jew known as Saul of Tarsus. "

Isn't it a wrong premises/assumption/hypothesis as per the Jewish Encylopedia, please?:
SAUL OF TARSUS - JewishEncyclopedia.com
Right?

Regards

Here is another quote from the Jewish Encylopedia.

Anti-Jewish Attitude.
Whatever the physiological or psychological analysis of Paul's temperament may be, his conception of life was not Jewish. Nor can his unparalleled animosity and hostility to Judaism as voiced in the Epistles be accounted for except upon the assumption that, while born a Jew, he was never in sympathy or in touch with the doctrines of the rabbinical schools. For even his Jewish teachings came to him through Hellenistic channels, as is indicated by the great emphasis laid upon "the day of the divine wrath" (Rom. i. 18; ii. 5, 8; iii. 5; iv. 15; v. 9; ix. 22; xii. 19; I Thess. i. 10; Col. iii. 6; comp. Sibyllines, iii. 309 et seq., 332; iv. 159, 161 et seq.; and elsewhere),

Okay, I'll admit that I just had a bit of a jaw dropping moment after reading the prior sentence above. But continuing...

as well as by his ethical monitions, which are rather inconsistently taken over from Jewish codes of law for proselytes, the Didache and Didascalia. It is quite natural, then, that not only the Jews (Acts xxi. 21), but also the Judæo-Christians, regarded Paul as an "apostate from the Law" (see Eusebius, l.c. iii. 27; Irenæus, "Adversus Hæreses," i. 26, 2; Origen, "Contra Celsum," v. 65; Clement of Rome, "Recognitiones," i. 70. 73).

 

[paarsurrey]

Here is another quote from the Jewish Encylopedia.

Okay, I'll admit that I just had a bit of a jaw dropping moment after reading the prior sentence above. But continuing...

The last one:
"as well as by his ethical monitions, which are rather inconsistently taken over from Jewish codes of law for proselytes, the Didache and Didascalia. It is quite natural, then, that not only the Jews (Acts xxi. 21), but also the Judæo-Christians, regarded Paul as an "apostate from the Law" (see Eusebius, l.c. iii. 27; Irenæus, "Adversus Hæreses," i. 26, 2; Origen, "Contra Celsum," v. 65; Clement of Rome, "Recognitiones," i. 70. 73)."
ooo
exposes Paul evil intentions conclusively, one gathers. Right?

Regards

 

[Ehav4Ever]

What is your take on Paul's view of the Torah Law of Moses?

Paul was a hot spot for Hellonist ideas and thus Paul was not a Torath Mosheh Jew. Further, given that language his letter were written in, what he wrote, and there being no evidence as to him actually have been taught Torath Mosheh by anyone it is easy for me to surmise he was a pure Hellonist in some form. It also interesting that it is claimed that the ebionites did like Paul and considered him a heretic.

 

[David Davidovich]

I think that it's interesting that since Paul is considered as a very pious and well-educated Jew, he gave the impression to the world of how strict, meticulous, and untenable the Jewish culture was for people who only knew about the Jewish culture from their surface reading of the Hebrew text. And one Christian scripture that come to mind is Colossians 2:21. And commenting on this verse:

Since Paul mentions "touching" and "handling" separately, "touch" might also be a reference to lighting fires, since the Greek word for "touch" was used to refer to this practice. This may have a connection to spiritual practices, or using certain objects. "Handling" seems to be a specific reference to the Mosaic law. Jewish laws held that physically contacting certain items would render a person ceremonially unclean.

Also, many religious traditions place restrictions on what a person can or cannot eat. The Mosaic law held a variety of dietary laws, yet Paul noted, "Do not, for the sake of food, destroy the work of God. Everything is indeed clean" (Romans 14:20). Christians were not bound to the food laws of the Mosaic law or other religious teachings.

In context, the intent of Paul's words is clear. Christians should not feel obligated to follow the rules and regulations of Judaism in order to please God.

click here: What does Colossians 2:21 mean? | BibleRef.com

But I'm wondering now why Paul had such a problem with the Torah, and I'm wondering if he actually understood the Torah and the Tanakh.

 

[Ehav4Ever]

I think that it's interesting that since Paul is considered as a very pious and well-educated Jew

For us Jews, he never was considered to be any of those things. You also have to remember, what is known about Paul comes from the NT authors. There are no Jews who ever claimed to have ever met him, learned with him, seen him, etc.

For us, it is like saying. Maybe there was some Hellonized Jewish guy who went by the name Paul but we never met him and don't hve any evidence he was ever Torah based. If he was really from Tarsus it is more likely he was Hellonistic. His writings are really foreign to Torath Mosheh.

he gave the impression to the world of how strict, meticulous, and untenable the Jewish culture was for people who only knew about the Jewish culture from their surface reading of the Hebrew text. But I'm wondering now why Paul had such a problem with the Torah, and I'm wondering if he actually understood the Torah and the Tanakh.

The first problem you have is who was Paul really? That is still up for debate. If very little is known about him it is hard to say what his intentions were. He probably made various claims about himself to his non-Jewish audience because he could. How would they know any different. There is no proof that Paul knew Hebrew at all. He definately didn't write anything that exists today in Hebrew.

Also, some of the backstory of Paul was probably invented by the author of acts.

 

[pearl]

Also, some of the backstory of Paul was probably invented by the author of acts.

Certainly embellished.

 

[David Davidovich]

One thing about this video is that here at 26:29, Rabbi Skobac is mistaken about how God never killed anyone because they didn't believe. Because I would say that he did with Noah's flood in Genesis 6-8 and with the inhabitants of Sodom and Gomorrah in Genesis 19.

Also, the point that he makes at 27:23 about angels cohabitating with human women, I suppose it's incorrect to interpret the scriptures by means of sola scriptura the way that Christian fundamentalist do. Also, I wonder why fundamentalist Christians don't understand that and seem to be unaware of Jewish commentaries. Plus, I wanted to ask: Well, who are the Nephilim in Genesis 6:4, if they are not hybrid offspring of angels and humans? Also, why does the sefaria Hebrew text version describe their fathers as "divine beings"?

הַנְּפִלִ֞ים הָי֣וּ בָאָ֘רֶץ֮ בַּיָּמִ֣ים הָהֵם֒ וְגַ֣ם אַֽחֲרֵי־כֵ֗ן אֲשֶׁ֨ר יָבֹ֜אוּ בְּנֵ֤י הָֽאֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־בְּנ֣וֹת הָֽאָדָ֔ם וְיָלְד֖וּ לָהֶ֑ם הֵ֧מָּה הַגִּבֹּרִ֛ים אֲשֶׁ֥ר מֵעוֹלָ֖ם אַנְשֵׁ֥י הַשֵּֽׁם׃ {פ}
It was then, and later too, that the Nephilim appeared on earth—when divine beings cohabited with the human women, who bore them offspring. Such were the heroes of old, the men of renown.

click here: Genesis 6:4 with Connections (sefaria.org)

Additionally, at 33:51, he makes a point about Jude 1:9 about an event that never was mentioned in the Tanakh. However, one of our "friends" in another thread who also was raised Jewish, said concerning another verse in Jude that:

I dont think that provides conclusive proof that Jude quoted from the apochrypal book of enoch.

That account about enoch would have been well known to people of the Jewish faith and there is evidence that they had oral stories handed down from generation to generation. The story about Enoch may have included such a statement as a judgement against the wicked. There is another example of Paul naming the two egyption priests from the days of Moses yet those names are not mentioned in the bible.

So its really circumstantial and Jude could have got the information from other sources,.... perhaps the writer of the book got the information from the same source as jude.

Plus, in post 28, this same poster said:

Yes, its reasonable to believe that the preaching of Enoch and his judgement was passed on orally. Noah was related to Enoch and was a contemporary. Noah was also a preacher and surely knew of what enoch had said and this information he would have passed onto his sons, one be Shem who was the forefather of the jewish people. There is nothing unusual about oral stories...its a human trait to tell our kids the stories of our forefathers

just saying, brought up by jewish parents in a jewish society who all listen to the same stories from the past. Its not a stretch.

But, based on what you've explained in various threads, this person's claimed Jewish viewpoint would not be the viewpoint of Torath Mosheh Jews. Or could Torath Mosheh Jews have passed down this story about Enoch?

But anyway, I stopped at 33:55 and will finish the video later and let you know if I have any other questions or comments about it.

 

[Ehav4Ever]

One thing about this video is that here at 26:29, Rabbi Skobac is mistaken about how God never killed anyone because they didn't believe. Because I would say that he did with Noah's flood in Genesis 6-8 and with the inhabitants of Sodom and Gomorrah in Genesis 19.

That is not correct. According to the Hebrew text of the Torah the flood did not happen because of a lack in beleif. According to the Hebrew text of the Torah was because they were destroying things. The Hebrew word used is they were doing (חמס) "hamas" to the world. It is like saying they were essentially destroying things all over the place and destabelizing the planet.

 

[Ehav4Ever]

Plus, I wanted to ask: Well, who are the Nephilim in Genesis 6:4, if they are not hybrid offspring of angels and humans? Also, why does the sefaria Hebrew text version describe their fathers as "divine beings"?

Concerning sefaria, I don't use that site, esepcially not the translation. I don't know much about who does what in terms of translation there but I do find the following something that I would take into account before I rely on its translations. I think one of the problems with translations, into English for Westerners, there are times when Jews who do such translations may not consider that they are not providing enough information to make something clear and instead rely on Christian made translations for inspiration on how to render something into English. From what I understand the JPS translation, for example, relied on the KJV to decide how to render their translation.

 

[Ehav4Ever]

But, based on what you've explained in various threads, this person's claimed Jewish viewpoint would not be the viewpoint of Torath Mosheh Jews. Or could Torath Mosheh Jews have passed down this story about Enoch?

Be aware that someont saying they were "raised Jewish" doesn't mean that a) they were ever taught Hebrew, b) that they checked Torath Mosheh sources, and c) that what they claim they heard from someone in their background even came from a reliable source.

There are a number of people on RF who claim to have been Jewish, somehow, and a few of them have made claims about things they supposidly remember when they "were" Jewish. One in particular when questioned about their supposed memory didn't remember so well.

 

[David Davidovich]

That is not correct. According to the Hebrew text of the Torah the flood did not happen because of a lack in beleif. According to the Hebrew text of the Torah was because they were destroying things. The Hebrew word used is they were doing (חמס) "hamas" to the world. It is like saying they were essentially destroying things all over the place and destabelizing the planet.

But how could primitive, ancient people who had not even migrated throughout the planet destroy and destabilize the planet? Also, I had always thought that the destabilization of the earth back then was referring to the moral ruination of the earth. Plus, I had always thought the ones who didn't believe and heed Noah's warning were destroyed. Unless that is a Christian belief since I just looked and couldn't find that in the Hebrew text. And by the way, why did all other living creatures get destroyed with the exception of the ones that came onto the ark in pairs?

Additionally, in Genesis 19, weren't the people in Sodom and Gomorrah destroyed because of immorality and because they didn't believe God's warning about the destruction of those cities?

12And the men said to Lot, "Whom else do you have here? A son-in-law, your sons, and your daughters, and whomever you have in the city, take out of the place. יבוַיֹּֽאמְר֨וּ הָֽאֲנָשִׁ֜ים אֶל־ל֗וֹט עֹ֚ד מִֽי־לְךָ֣ פֹ֔ה חָתָן֙ וּבָנֶ֣יךָ וּבְנֹתֶ֔יךָ וְכֹ֥ל אֲשֶׁר־לְךָ֖ בָּעִ֑יר הוֹצֵ֖א מִן־הַמָּקֽוֹם:
13For we are destroying this place, because their cry has become great before the Lord, and the Lord has sent us to destroy it." יגכִּֽי־מַשְׁחִתִ֣ים אֲנַ֔חְנוּ אֶת־הַמָּק֖וֹם הַזֶּ֑ה כִּי־גָֽדְלָ֤ה צַֽעֲקָתָם֙ אֶת־פְּנֵ֣י יְהֹוָ֔ה וַיְשַׁלְּחֵ֥נוּ יְהֹוָ֖ה לְשַֽׁחֲתָֽהּ:
14So Lot went forth and spoke to his sons-in-law, the suitors of his daughters, and he said, "Arise, go forth from this place, for the Lord is destroying the city," but he seemed like a comedian in the eyes of his sons-in-law. ידוַיֵּצֵ֨א ל֜וֹט וַיְדַבֵּ֣ר | אֶל־חֲתָנָ֣יו | לֹֽקְחֵ֣י בְנֹתָ֗יו וַיֹּ֨אמֶר֙ ק֤וּמוּ צְּאוּ֙ מִן־הַמָּק֣וֹם הַזֶּ֔ה כִּֽי־מַשְׁחִ֥ית יְהֹוָ֖ה אֶת־הָעִ֑יר וַיְהִ֥י כִמְצַחֵ֖ק בְּעֵינֵ֥י חֲתָנָֽיו:

click here: Bere**** - Genesis - Chapter 19 (Parshah Vayeira) - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible (chabad.org)

 

[David Davidovich]

Concerning sefaria, I don't use that site, esepcially not the translation. I don't know much about who does what in terms of translation there but I do find the following something that I would take into account before I rely on its translations. I think one of the problems with translations, into English for Westerners, there are times when Jews who do such translations may not consider that they are not providing enough information to make something clear and instead rely on Christian made translations for inspiration on how to render something into English. From what I understand the JPS translation, for example, relied on the KJV to decide how to render their translation.

View attachment 65417

I see. So, what was the situation in Genesis 6:4?

 

[Ehav4Ever]

But how could primitive, ancient people who had not even migrated throughout the planet destroy and destabilize the planet?

Easy. They build up destructive cultures that continue and wipe out any good that come out of a situation and they produce generation after generation of destructive behaviour. Also, "primative" is a subjective thing.

 

[Ehav4Ever]

Additionally, in Genesis 19, weren't the people in Sodom and Gomorrah destroyed because of immorality and because they didn't believe God's warning about the destruction of those cities?

They were also not destroyed because of beleif. They were destroyed because they built up a destructive culture. There are Jewish texts that talk about what kind of things they did to outsiders and their system of justice was very corrupt.