You realise the scales of the issues are WILDLY different, right?
And you think that's supposed to make it ok?
Seriously, your link lists NINE mass shootings in the past four years (of which, seven had no fatalities).
Compare that, to this:
en.wikipedia.org
The USA has had FIFTEEN mass shootings IN THE LAST NINE MONTHS. That is FIFTEEN TIMES MORE than happened in the UK in the same period, and all but ONE resulted in fatalities. And this is hardly an aberration:
2023
UK: 1 mass shooting, 0 with fatalities
USA: 28 mass shootings, 27 with fatalities
2022
UK: 2 mass shootings, 1 with fatalities
USA: 23 mass shootings, 21 with fatalities
2021
UK: 3 mass shootings, 1 with fatalities
USA: 13 mass shootings, 13 with fatalities
2020
UK: 3 mass shootings, 1 with fatalities
USA: 7 mass shootings, 3 with fatalities
2019:
UK: 1 mass shooting, 0 with fatalities
USA: 18 mass shootings, 11 with fatalities
If you want to make an argument that involves comparing differences incident scales between countries, don't you think it's important to take into account what the population of each country involved is? The ratio of population between the US and UK is 5 to 1, so in "per capita" terms, we're not really talking 15 times more; we're talking 3 times more.
Yes, 3 times more is still a much bigger ratio, and that may enough to prove something meaningful, but what? I don't think it proves anything meaningful, because for one thing, you're taking a multi-dimensional issue and ignoring all the dimensions except for one, and from that one dimension you're using you're trying to draw conclusions about the multi-dimensional issue. In other words, depending on what point you're trying to make or what you're trying to prove, you're essentially cherry picking.
Let's look at another dimension - access to firearms; are they more easily accessible in the US than the UK? Let's start with the implied premise from the original post to which I replied, which I take to be that firearms are fairly accessible in the US and practically not accessible in the UK. I'm not sure how to quantify this right now, but it seems like a ballpark estimate based on this, and without knowing the statistics, would yield mass shootings in the US that occur hundreds, thousands, or even more times as many as the UK.
As an analogy, to try to explain what I mean by this, let's compare a 1 square mile apple orchard (50,000 apple trees) to a 10 square mile area with only 1 apple tree; this means a ratio of 500,000 apples in the orchard to every apple on the tree in the 10 square mile plot (assuming an equal yield of apples from each tree).
Why is the ratio of mass shootings between the UK and US only 1:3, rather than - say - 1:500,000, or 1:50,000, or 1:5,000, or 1:500, or 1:50, or even 1:5?
Here's one more dimension: crimes that could've been prevented if the victim was armed with a firearm. Since we're talking specifically about mass shootings, how likely would you expect a mass shooter to square off with a group of people armed to the teeth & even if they did, how many shooting (or "mass" shooting) casualties would they be able to achieve? With a group of people armed to the teeth, they might be able to get one, but once they get that one victim, that's probably it, because at that point the rest of the people armed to the teeth will turn that would-be mass shooter into Swiss cheese.
I'm going to assume a 1 in 100 chance that a would-be mass shooter would square off with people armed to the teeth; that would correspond to bringing down the number of mass shooting attempts to 1% of what they would've otherwise been. You can make it 10% or even 50% if you want, but there's going to be those would-be mass shooters who have enough brains to know that they're very likely going to fail by trying to go up against people armed to the teeth, and it's a little difficult for me to buy the idea that even 1% of them don't have the brains. This means 0 mass shootings for 99% of the would-be scenarios.
Now let's talk about the remaining would-be mass shooters (the ones who don't have the brains); to reiterate, they might get 1 casualty, but that's it & this means that they failed to achieve a mass shooting, which won't be counted in as a mass shooting event since they failed.
Since this thread is about the incident at the golf course with Trump, what happened there? Well it seems like this would-be assassin was going to try to allegedly whack Trump, yet got to fire off no shots. Had there not been a presence of Secret Service agents who were armed, and fired at him, this guy probably would've fired at Trump repeatedly until he got him, and just like the 1st assassination attempt in Butler PA, as well as the Congressional baseball mass shooting incident in Alexandria VA, it could've also been a mass shooting incident.
Maybe this explains why the ratio isn't anywhere near 1:500,000, but why is it still a higher 1:3 ratio, one might ask. Well, let's consider that despite the ease of access to firearms in the US, we have gun-free zones. The law-abiding people in these zones have to be unarmed when they're in them, or even if they are armed when they go into them, they're going to be hesitant to draw their weapons and use them because with that act alone they'd be breaking the laws. So, in effect, you don't have people armed to the teeth; you have sitting ducks. This gives would-be mass shooters some target-rich environments, and that's where we have large mass casualties when a mass shooter decides to inflict their wrath.
These are just a couple of examples of the dimensions involved; there are many more & I think the ratio of per capita mass shootings in the US would actually be way lower than the UK if the 2nd Amendment was respected everywhere, all the time, here in the US.
Your argument utterly fails when you look at the rates, because it's pretty obvious that those "bad guys" who want to do mass shootings sure don't seem to manage to do them as much when access to guns is restricted. You've accidentally proven the point quite well that gun availability contributes massively to the likelihood of mass shootings.
EDIT: In fact, on double-checking my sources, it's actually SIGNIFICANTLY WORSE than the above, because the Wiki pages I referenced for USA mass shooting stats only refer to "NOTABLE" mass shootings, while the UK source lists literally ALL mass shootings.
en.wikipedia.org
en.wikipedia.org
The actual number for the mass shootings in the USA is THIS:
2024
432, with 527 dead
2023
600, with 739 dead
2022
695, with 762 dead
2021
690, with 431 dead
2020
615, with 521 dead
2019
434, with 387 dead
To even attempt to draw a direct comparison between the UK and the USA in this regard isn't just dishonest, it's outright delusional.
Argument? I refuted the claims that were posted, and that I had responded to, with facts.
Literally a logical fallacy. Do better.
Which logical fallacy is it? Show me how.