If the female in question was actually the man's wife would it have been viewed as a husband "disciplining" his wife? Or would it have been viewed as domestic abuse? Standing over anyone while whipping a leather belt across them back and forth while ranting about how "disobedient" they are and that they need beaten into "submission" is abusive...and psychotic to boot.
Oh, and for the record, any intentional physical strike which leaves pronounced welts and/or markings and/or leaves bruises is classified as abuse/assault in this country. If it would be an assault which would land your butt in jail if done to a complete stranger in the street, it is most definitely considered abuse within the home. As a judge, you'd think the man would know that. He wouldn't have gotten away with doing that to a random person he didn't even know, so why should it be felt that he should be able to do it to his own daughter?