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Was Jesus sent to the Jews only, or to Mankind?

Levite

Higher and Higher
Was Jesus sent to the Jews only, or to Mankind?

The Jewish reply, at least, would be that Jesus wasn't sent, any more than any other human being is sent. He was just a guy, and the Romans killed him, like they killed a lot of other Jewish preachers and teachers (both the orthodox and heretical kinds) of that time. And as for what he taught (insofar as we equate that with the materials in the Christian scriptures), it may be acceptable for non-Jews, but it is absolutely unacceptable for Jews.
 

Shermana

Heretic
It says he forbade his disciples from preaching to the gentile cities. When the Canaanite woman asks for a blessing, he only grants it to her after she acknowledges she is in comparison to Israelites, a dog.

This only changes in Acts and from an alleged vision.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
What does Jesus say in this matter?

That is a difficult question. Levite made a great point though. He probably was not sent.

As for his message, there is debate concerning that. It does appear that it was primarily a message for the Jews. As his ministry wore on, it seems that he opened up his ministry a little wider. And there is some precedent for this. We see in the OT God mentioning all the nations.
 

Bob Dixon

>implying
I believe that he was "sent" (if you insist on using that word) specifically to the Jews.
But it's still possible for anyone to benefit from his teachings.

It's like if I were to throw you a street party for your birthday, but still allow anyone to come, dance, take food, etc. Yeah, the party is for you, but you're not the only one who can enjoy it.
 

Rocky S

Christian Goth
except that was written by the anti jewish sect of christianity by a group of people who never knew or met jesus, nor lived where jesus did.
Hmm, ok ,interesting opinion, but John knew Jesus. Were do you get "a group of people" wrote this particular gospel were this verse I mentioned is found? the Gospel of john was written by the apostle John around around AD 90, John was a disciple of Jesus as you well know. and was with him before his death burial and resurrection.
 

fantome profane

Anti-Woke = Anti-Justice
Premium Member
Hmm, ok ,interesting opinion, but John knew Jesus. Were do you get "a group of people" wrote this particular gospel were this verse I mentioned is found? the Gospel of john was written by the apostle John around around AD 90, John was a disciple of Jesus as you well know. and was with him before his death burial and resurrection.
Is there any actual evidence that the Gospel of John was written by the apostle John? Or any good reason to think so?
 

tumbleweed41

Resident Liberal Hippie
fantôme profane;3020742 said:
Is there any actual evidence that the Gospel of John was written by the apostle John? Or any good reason to think so?
The Gospel itself claims to be authored by ""the disciple whom Jesus loved.", but there is no real evidence that it was written by John, or any of the other apostles, other than tradition.
 

fantome profane

Anti-Woke = Anti-Justice
Premium Member
The Gospel itself claims to be authored by ""the disciple whom Jesus loved.", but there is no real evidence that it was written by John, or any of the other apostles, other than tradition.

Considering that it was written around 90 AD and considering that it is extremely unlikely that the apostle John was literate, I would say it is very unlikely it was written by him.
 

Shia Islam

Quran and Ahlul-Bayt a.s.
Premium Member
I believe that he was "sent" (if you insist on using that word) specifically to the Jews.
But it's still possible for anyone to benefit from his teachings.

It's like if I were to throw you a street party for your birthday, but still allow anyone to come, dance, take food, etc. Yeah, the party is for you, but you're not the only one who can enjoy it.

Let's enrich the discussion... I admit that I should not have chosen the word sent in this question...as many members don't think that it's the right word.

So let's ask:
Did Jesus come to the whole world, or to the Jews only?
 

Sleeppy

Fatalist. Christian. Pacifist.
It says he forbade his disciples from preaching to the gentile cities. When the Canaanite woman asks for a blessing, he only grants it to her after she acknowledges she is in comparison to Israelites, a dog.

This only changes in Acts and from an alleged vision.

God help you. Do you actually believe it was because she was a dog, in comparison to the Israelites?
 

Sleeppy

Fatalist. Christian. Pacifist.
Matt. 28:19 - 'Having gone, then, disciple all the nations, (baptizing them -- to the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit..'

Mark 16:15 - 'And he said to them, 'Having gone to all the world, proclaim the good news to all the creation..'

Luke 24:47 - 'And reformation and remission of sins to be proclaimed in his name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem..'
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
What does Jesus say in this matter?

it helps to understand the initial phase of the messiahs work on earth.

He said that he was sent to the house of Isreal.
Matthew 10:5 These twelve Jesus sent forth, giving them these orders: “Do not go off into the road of the nations, and do not enter into a Sa·mar′i·tan city; 6 but, instead, go continually to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. 7 As YOU go, preach, saying, ‘The kingdom of the heavens has drawn near.’

The purpose of his preaching to Israel first was because God had made a promise to the nation of Israel that they would become a kingdom of 'priests' to God. Moses explained it in Exodus
19:5 And now if YOU will strictly obey my voice and will indeed keep my covenant, then YOU will certainly become my special property out of all [other] peoples, because the whole earth belongs to me. 6 And YOU yourselves will become to me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.’ These are the words that you are to say to the sons of Israel.”

When Jesus began to preach that the Kingdom of God was near, he called faithful Isrealites to become members of that kingdom....they were given the first opportunity to rule with Christ as kings and priests in the heavenly kingdom. And they themselves were to call people of the nations to become subjects of Gods kingdom in harmony with Gods promise to Abraham at Genesis 22:18 And by means of your seed all nations of the earth will certainly bless themselves due to the fact that you have listened to my voice.

The seed of the this promise began with Jesus Christ (the messiah) and includes the co-rulers who Jesus first called....faithful jews. And thereafter, the message of Jesus would go out into all the nations of earth so that they could 'bless themselves' by means of the heavenly kingdom that has been set up in order to restore mankind to perfection and to bring them back to God.
 
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