Unless you believe that Judaism and Christianity are the same faith, your statement here is incorrect. There were sects in Judaism (denounced by Jesus)...Christianity as such didn't yet exist. It is true that some viewed those belonging to "The Way" as a sect of Judaism...but that was not true. Sectarianism was never promoted by Jesus.Paul said of Christians "Now I urge you, brothers, through the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that you should all speak in agreement and that there should be no divisions among you, but that you may be completely united in the same mind and in the same line of thought." This leaves no room for sects of any persuasion. The corruption of Judaism came about because of the teachings and traditions acceptable to men. The sects of Christendom come from the same place. Jews had to leave that apostate system in order to obey the Christ....Christians are called out of "Babylon the great" for the same reason. (2 Cor 6:9-11)
1. Ok we get it......Good logic isn't exactly a JW strength, but it's ok to stop contradicting yourself.
I guess that depends on how you read scripture. The sects of Judaism were roundly condemned by Jesus. The sects in Christendom would likewise be condemned by him. Christians were to be "united in their beliefs"...not divided whilst claiming unity. (1 Cor 1:10)
2. The sects or groups themselves were not condemn. It was the behavior of certain individuals within the sects that Jesus condemned:
Mat 23:2 "The teachers of religious law and the Pharisees are the official interpreters of the law of Moses.
Mat 23:3 So practice and obey whatever they tell you, but don't follow their example. For they don't practice what they teach.
If Christ thought the entire sect of the scribes and Pharisees were corrupt, Christ would have discouraged the people from obeying them. Yet he encouraged obedience to their commands with a disclaimer not to follow their examples of hypocrisy. You are suppose to be the only channel for God and you do not know this?
Or the guy was blown away by the power of using Jesus name in expelling demons. If he was drawn to Christianity, then he would have attached himself to the congregation because no one was permitted to teach their version of Jesus' teachings. All congregations came under the leadership and direction of a body of older men in Jerusalem. These in turn were guided by the apostles. There were no sects in Christianity originally, just as there were no sects in Judaism at first. Men broke away and formulated their own version of each. Why do we suppose that Christ rejected the Pharisees and Saducees and led people away from their errors...he is doing the same with the sham form of Christianity sown by men in the early centuries, C.E. The "weeds" of Jesus parable were not sown recently and they did what weeds do best...they all but choked out the wheat and took over the garden.
3. That's nice. But you didn't answer the question. Let's try it again: The individual or group in Mar 9 was not united with Jesus' group. According to your interpretation of unity and division, Jesus should have condemned him. So why didn't He?
Jesus began an exclusive sect if you want to press the point. His followers were required to cut ties with the apostate Jewish system. It required them to accept one set of beliefs...taught by Jesus and his apostles. No adoptions of pagan ideas was permitted in their worship...which was the undoing of Israel down through their history. Christendom has emulated them.
4. Jesus began an exclusive sect of what---- Christianity or Judaism? (I'd be careful how I answer this one
)
Since there are only "wheat" and "weeds" at the end of the age, and there are only two roads, not several, it seems as if there is only two kinds of religion in the world when Jesus comes to judge us. True worship and false worship.
5. Not two kinds of religion, two kinds of people within the Christian religion. True and false worship are subjective concepts of human thinking. The only one who is qualified to undeniably distinguish between true and false worship is Christ--not earthly human beings in a finite organization. We do our best to interpret and apply the text with the limited knowledge and understanding (1 co 13:9) God has given each sect and or individual. Meanwhile, we must grow in love for all mankind, which is a lot harder to instill than some doctrinal position, until full understanding is revealed (1 Co 13:10) at the return of Christ.
According to Matthew's account the ones Jesus rejects as "workers of lawlessness" have no idea that they are unacceptable to the one they claim as their "Lord". (Matt 7:21-23)
6. Wait a sec. You claim the statement made by Christ in Mar 9:38-40 does not apply to Christians today because the guy was a Jew under the law of Moses, but a statement made to Jews under the same law of Moses in Mat 7:21-23 does apply to Christians today??? You guys are hilarious . This is what happens when you blindly follow an organization and don't think for yourselves. You start tripping over your own fallacious rhetoric.
The individual in Mark 9:38-40 was Jewish. Christianity had not yet formed.
7. The individuals Jesus spoke to in Mat 7:21-23 were also Jewish and Christianity had not yet formed. Applying your twisted logic of Mar 9:38-40, the sermon on the mount can not apply to Christians today either.
There are not many versions of the truth...there is just one. There can be many versions of untruth however. It is up to each of us to find the only gate leading to the cramped and narrow road to life.....there are not many who find it. (Matt 7:13, 14) The "many" are on the other road, blissfully unaware of where it is taking them.
When Jesus spoke those words, he was speaking about a Jewish man who was living under the then covenant of Moses. That man was not a christian because the christian church did not exist until after Jesus death. That man was a Jew under the covenant of Moses and was part of the one and only holy nation of God at that time.
And it obviously didn't matter to Christ what this man was.
So Jesus wasnt saying there would be others besides the christians who would also have Gods favor.
8. This "us" versus "them" attitude is precisely what Jesus taught against in Mar 9:38-40. May God one day give you the eyes to see and ears to hear.
When Jesus spoke those words, he was speaking about a Jewish man who was living under the then covenant of Moses. That man was not a christian because the christian church did not exist until after Jesus death. That man was a Jew under the covenant of Moses and was part of the one and only holy nation of God at that time. So Jesus wasnt saying there would be others besides the christians who would also have Gods favor.
Hi Pegg. It's been a while. I figured it was time to knock you guys off your high horse. It was getting a little too high. Still love you guys though
. For a reply to your post see point 6 above.