My question here is for everyone who has expressed or believes any such thing as that the term “rights” is not a method or an attempt to communicate some objective moral fact. That is, my question is for everyone here who has expressed something to the effect that the term “rights” does not and cannot possibly refer to something beyond what a government can bestow.
My question is this: If that were true (that the term “rights” does not and cannot possibly refer to something beyond what a government can bestow), then why fight a bloody, horrible, expensive war such as the US Civil War in order to secure the fundamental human rights of slaves? What possible rational reason would there be for such a war, if there were nothing immoral about depriving those slaves of fundamental human rights such as life, liberty and property or the pursuit of happiness?
My question is this: If that were true (that the term “rights” does not and cannot possibly refer to something beyond what a government can bestow), then why fight a bloody, horrible, expensive war such as the US Civil War in order to secure the fundamental human rights of slaves? What possible rational reason would there be for such a war, if there were nothing immoral about depriving those slaves of fundamental human rights such as life, liberty and property or the pursuit of happiness?