Thief
Rogue Theologian
Like a coin flipping around before it lands,
seldom does it land on it's edge,
but it could !
~
Pascal always wins
~
'mud
With a pinch and a snap it spins on edge pretty good, too!
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Like a coin flipping around before it lands,
seldom does it land on it's edge,
but it could !
~
Pascal always wins
~
'mud
So how does that phenomenon indicate the presence of something called "I", a localized being in time and space?
The non-locality part comes in due to the fact that B was totally isolated from A. There was a zero connection between A & B, yet B's brain responded as if it were connected to A. The experiment thus proves non-locality. There is no question here.
THAT IS WHAT YOU HAVE NOT SHOWN! You have not shown that brain B could not have simply been receiving the same stimula. You think you have, but you have not.
No questions. Just a statement: it doesn't.
Even assuming the absurdity of thought transfer, you failed to prove non-locality. i can think of several things that can go through a Faraday cage. All non electrical particles for instance.
What about neutrinos. They will go through a Faraday cage as it did not exist. Someone should inform the mystics about this fact, lol.
Or maybe a new undiscovered field that interferes positively with brains waves (chuckle), whose particles are able to cross Faraday cages like neutrinos, but still travel at finite speed and are, therefore, local.
Who knows? There is only one way for you to prove non-locality: measure it with clocks or interferometers. All those experiments failed to do that.
Ciao
- viole
Some here want to compare "mysticality" with "science"....
I don't.
No Indian or shaman or smoke breathing spirit father will ever convince me of the crap that I've read here.
"Consciouness" or any other twist to the reality or the natural existance of life on this planet ever will.
~
'mud
With a pinch and a snap it spins on edge pretty good, too!
Another thing my little mind cannot comprehend is that, can it be possible in another universe or pre BB, that our theory of the periodic table is null and void. Can another physical universe exist without electrons, neutrons, protons, etc
Nobody knows. Including you
Do you think you exist as the person you refer to as "I"?
Good point...
Is there any chance that energies could slow down differently and create different manifestations.
Eg, we can create unstable heavy elements, could these heavy elements be stable in another universe without trying to breakdown.
I have not shown it; the experiment has not shown it, because that is not what occurred. Use your head: why would researchers set up the experiment that way when it makes zero sense in light of their intention to find out if the brain is capable of maintaining a non-local connection?
(Of course, judging from your responses thus far, I really can't expect you to have the ability to connect dot A to dot B yet.)
One more time, with feeling: A AND B WERE TOTALLY ISOLATED ONE FROM THE OTHER! THERE IS NO WAY B COULD HAVE DIRECTLY RECEIVED THE SAME STIMULI THAT A DID.
You continue to use classical logic in order to determine what reality is. It doesn't work that way, though you have been conditioned to think that it must.
This conversation is over until you can provide an answer to the question without manipulating the protocol of the experiment to suit your model of reality.
Of course! It's doing its best to stand up from the dust!:biglaugh:
Your are saying this "IS" the manifestation.
Did you mean this is "A" manifestation.
Why would they do it? Well probabky because they either fail to grasp some very basic science, or are dishonest. Faraday cages do not isolate from all stimuli, subject B clearly just reacted to the same stimuli.
That is because the 'dots' here simply do not connect.
But it DID. It demonstrably did react to the same stimuli.
Fine, but you are not using any logic. Classical logic may have its limitations, but it beats no logic hands down.
I did provide the answer - there are two possible explanations of the results:
1. Subject B simply was clearly not isolated from the stimuli, as evidenced and demonstrated by the fact that it reacted to it.
2. Physicists are all wrong, and your woo woo youtube scientists have utterly destroyed modern scientific wisdom with a single brilliant experiment - and they are just far too humble to publish formally and claim their Nobel prize.
I would think that the odds of 1. being correct are almost 100%.
Faraday cages shield against electromagnetic waves. The brain elicits weak EW's. It was just an added precaution.
Brain A was connected to an EEG machine directly, and directly subjected to loud music, electric shock to the fingertips, and pulsing lights. Brain B was connected to a separate EEG machine, and was NOT subjected to any stimuli whatsoever. No music, no shocks, no lights, and far enough away from Subject A that he could not detect the stimuli being adminstered to A. IOW, Subject B was isolated from A. There is no way B could have consciously detected the stimuli to which A was subjected. BUT B'S BRAIN RESPONDED IN EXACTLY THE SAME MANNER AS DID A'S BRAIN, WITHOUT SUBJECT B KNOWING IT WAS DOING SO.
Endlessly repeating the same silly misconception acheives nothing, both subjects reacted to the same stimula.So no: Subject B could not have reacted to the same stimuli as did Subject A. B did not hear, see, or feel any stimuli whatsoever.
Do you understand now?
(Probably not)
Nope, view 1. is perfectly plausible, is supported by the evidence and is almost guaranteed to be the case. There is nothing extreme about assuming your youtube pseudo scientists failed to isolate subject B properly. Especially given the gross dishonesty of many of their claims and inferences, the likelyhood that their methodology is as bankrupt as their honesty is very high.Because you fail to see the connection, or rather, the fact that there was no connection between A and B.
Really? Subject B was subjected to the same stimuli as was Subject A? Where?
Does it? Try applying classical logic to Quantum Mechanics.
Both of which are idiotic extreme views that have zilch to do with reality.
The simple explanation is still that they simply did not insulate subject B properly. And of course the evidence still clearly demonstrates that to be the case.
See aboveEndlessly repeating the same silly misconception acheives nothing, both subjects reacted to the same stimula.
Nobody knows. Including you
But there are ideas, that do not involve cosmic consciousness or similar things.
A good entry point is "The Mind's I" from Dennett and Hofstaetter.