What Did Jesus Mean?

[Deeje]

Those of the kingdom of heaven are born of God (1 John 3:9).

Let me just separate these jumbled thoughts.

"Everyone who has been born from God does not practice sin, for His seed remains in such one, and he cannot practice sin, for he has been born from God."

OK....good so far....

The followers of the false prophet Paul, born of women, are the tares/lawless/bad guys.

Who said Paul is a false prophet? Where does the Bible say that Paul is a bad guy? Where does it identify Paul with the tares?
I always wonder how people can twist scripture to make someone out to be NOT what the Bible says they are. If the Bible is God's word, then don't you think he would have excluded Paul's contribution to the Christian scriptures completely if that was the case? Would God have been powerless to do that, deliberately causing confusion for those who would come later?

Elijah had the powers of the kingdom of heaven. John the Baptist did not display such powers.

Having Elijah's spirit had nothing to do with displays of power. It was his heralding the coming of the Messiah that was his primary role, which John carried out well. He had Elijah’s “spirit,” his drive and force......he spoke the words of God; words that exerted strong power; he was able very successfully to “turn back the hearts of fathers to children and the disobedient ones to the practical wisdom of righteous ones, to get ready for Jehovah a prepared people.” (Luke 1:17)

He may have had the spirit of Elijah, but he showed no powers and was looking for someone who did, to witness for them (Malachi 4:5).

“Look! I am sending to you E·liʹjah the prophet before the coming of the great and awe-inspiring day of Jehovah."

The prophet Elijah was long dead, but the one who manifested Elijah's spirit was identified by Jesus as John the Baptist. (Matthew 11:14)

The land was smitten with a curse (Mal 4:6) because the people did not "remember the law of Moses" (Malachi 4:4).

The nation of Israel was in a poor spiritual state when John began his preaching and baptizing about 6 months before Jesus presented himself for baptism in the Jordan River. His job was to "turn back the hearts of fathers to children and the disobedient ones to the practical wisdom of righteous ones, to get ready for Jehovah a prepared people." Most of Israel under influence from the corrupt Pharisees of the day, did not turn back, but the ones who accepted Jesus did. They had been baptized by John in preparation for hearing the words of the Christ. Those who embraced Jesus as Messiah were baptized again in his name.

 

[Deeje]

The context in the story is that Jesus is saying this to a crowd who had just listened to John the Baptist.

John was in prison at this stage because he had dared to chastise Herod for illegally marrying the wife of his brother. (Matthew 14:6-11)
Jesus sent word to John in prison to encourage him and to tell him of the success of his ministry which no doubt pleased him greatly. But when it was Herod's birthday, circumstances presented themselves and John was beheaded. He died knowing that he fulfilled his role just as God said he would.

My take on it is that Jesus felt that the crowd wasn’t suitably impressed by John the Baptist, so Jesus rebuked them, accused them of rejecting John because he didn’t match their expectations for a prophet, and proclaimed that John was greater than any other prophet and that what John described was far greater than him.

It is true that not all would be turned back to God.....in fact, true to prophesy, only a remnant of fleshly Israel responded positively to Jesus. The people presumed John to be a prophet because like Elijah, he wore the garments of a man of God, and he preached with boldness against the hypocritical Pharisees.

Just as a side point....have you ever wondered why Jesus resurrected his friend Lazarus but not his cousin John?

We need to know why John was the "greatest" man on earth, but one who is the least in the kingdom of God is greater than he is.....?

Any scriptures you would like to offer?

 

[KingSolomon]

For Christians....concerning John the Baptist, Jesus said....

11 Truly, I say to you, among those born of women there has arisen no one greater than John the Baptist. Yet the one who is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he."

What do you think Jesus meant by this? Please include scripture to support your answer.

John1:6 There was a man sent from God whose name was John.7 He came as a witness to testify concerning that light so that through him all might believe.8 He himself was not the light; he came only as a witness to the light.

Jesus wants to make sure that John cannot be the Messiah. So he says that if any ordinary person is greater than John, then John is not the One

 

[2ndpillar]

Who said Paul is a false prophet? Where does the Bible say that Paul is a bad guy? Where dies it identify Paul with the tares?
I always wonder how people can twist scripture to make someone out to be NOT what the Bible says they are. If the Bible is God's word, then don't you think he would have excluded Paul's contribution to the Christian scriptures completely if that was the case? Would God have been powerless to do that, deliberately causing confusion for those who would come later?

If you were familiar with the Word of God, you would know that Paul was chosen to "pasture" the "flock doomed to slaughter" (Zechariah 11:7-10). If you had paid attention to the testimony of Yeshua, you would have known that the "enemy" planted the "tare seed" in the same "field" as the "wheat", which is the good seed. You will find both seed in your NT mixed together. Your tare seed leads to lawlessness/wickedness (Matthew 13:41) & (Matthew 7:23) & (Romans 7:6).

 

[Deeje]

My theory is that for whoever is born again into the kingdom of God as in John 3:3-5

So a person has to be "born again to enter into the kingdom of God". What does it mean to be born again?
Do you believe that John was "born again"?

they have potential to do greater things than John the baptist or the other prophets as in Matthew 21:21. Doesn't mean they will all tap into that potential, but they do have the potential.

If John has entered into the kingdom of God, how is a least one, greater than he is? Are you saying that those who go to heaven have greater or lesser degrees of importance? Or greater demonstrations of power? Was that the case when Jesus' disciples performed their miracles?

 

[2ndpillar]

Having Elijah's spirit had nothing to do with displays of power. It was his heralding the coming of the Messiah that was his primary role, which John carried out well. He had Elijah’s “spirit,” his drive and force......he spoke the words of God; words that exerted strong power; he was able very successfully to “turn back the hearts of fathers to children and the disobedient ones to the practical wisdom of righteous ones, to get ready for Jehovah a prepared people.” (Luke 1:17)

John didn't turn back the hearts of fathers to children which resulted in a curse (Malachi 4:6), resulting in the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. Malachi 4:4 said, "remember the law of Moses". That didn't happen.

 

[2ndpillar]

The nation of Israel was in a poor spiritual state when John began his preaching and baptizing about 6 months before Jesus presented himself for baptism in the Jordan River. His job was to "turn back the hearts of fathers to children and the disobedient ones to the practical wisdom of righteous ones, to get ready for Jehovah a prepared people." Most of Israel under influence from the corrupt Pharisees of the day, did not turn back, but the ones who accepted Jesus did. They had been baptized by John in preparation for hearing the words of the Christ. Those who embraced Jesus as Messiah were baptized again in his name.

You miss represent the bible as bad as you miss represent me. John the Baptist also baptized the "brood of vipers", who were trying to escape the "wrath to come" (Mt 3:7). They were told that if they didn't provide good fruit in line with their repentance, they would be tossed into the fire. And John didn't turn back the hearts of the fathers to the children, and subsequently the land was smitten with a curse (Malachi 4:6). I would seriously suggest you use a different bible reference book . The baptism of water was symbolic, and no one was baptized twice by water. The words of John were the same as Yeshua, which was "repent; the kingdom of heaven is at hand". The difference was that Yeshua healed the blind, etc.

Malachi 4: 4“Remember the law of Moses My servant, even the statutes and ordinances which I commanded him in Horeb for all Israel.

5“Behold, I am going to send you Elijah the prophet before the coming of the great and terrible day of the LORD. 6“He will restore the hearts of the fathers to their children and the hearts of the children to their fathers, so that I will not come and smite the land with a curse.”

 

[Deeje]

If you were familiar with the Word of God, you would know that Paul was chosen to "pasture" the "flock doomed to slaughter" (Zechariah 11:7-10).

Well, the thing is...I do know my scripture but I do not take from it what you do. I do not see Paul even indirectly mentioned as the one chosen to "pasture" the "flock doomed to slaughter". That is all your own idea.

If you had paid attention to the testimony of Yeshua, you would have known that the "enemy" planted the "tare seed" in the same "field" as the "wheat", which is the good seed.

The parable of the "wheat and the tares" was about apostasy taking place in "the church" but I have nothing to connect Paul to the tares. These were planted "while men were sleeping".....meaning that once the apostles slept in death, the enemy satan could let loose and take the church away from God and his Christ by sowing seeds of false Christianity.
Paul was one of the men sleeping. Paul did nothing to lead the people away from God. I believe you have that all wrong.

You will find both seed in your NT mixed together. Your tare seed leads to lawlessness/wickedness (Matthew 13:41) & (Matthew 7:23) & (Romans 7:6).

You will find both seeds mixed together and growing among mankind. The field is the world...the same field has both true Christians and false ones growing side by side.....only at the harvest time were we to see a difference. Scholars believe that the tares were a weed called bearded darnell which was a blight to middle eastern farmers. It so closely resembled wheat in its early growing stages that it was likely that the wheat would be uprooted and mistaken for the weed if they tried to separate them too early.....but at the harvest time the heads took on a completely different appearance. Then it was safe to go and pull out the weeds and leave the wheat ready for harvest, just as Jesus' parable suggested.

For a very long time the weeds took over the "church" and led people down the wrong track....but in "the time of the end" God was going to 'cleanse, whiten and refine' a people who would be given an abundance of knowledge. (Daniel 12:4; 9-10) These would be granted insight and understanding, but the "wicked" (the weeds) who did not accept that cleansing, stayed in their spiritually soiled condition. The reapers are poised to harvest them at any time and leave the wheat to be gathered into God's storehouse.

But we are digressing......

 

[74x12]

So a person has to be "born again to enter into the kingdom of God". What does it mean to be born again?
Do you believe that John was "born again"?

John was not born again. The old Covenant does not offer the rebirth experience which only comes through the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ. To be born again you must be born into the body of Christ. Therefore you have eternal life because Jesus rose from the dead.

You are born again or "anew" or "above" whichever you prefer. All are accurate in the Greek. Anyway, this takes place when you receive the baptism of the holy Spirit as in Acts chapter 2.

John the baptist on the other hand, being born a prophet was filled with the holy Spirit from his mother's womb. But, there was no rebirth yet. Because Jesus had not yet died and rose from the dead.

Hopefully that makes it clear.

If John has entered into the kingdom of God, how is a least one, greater than he is? Are you saying that those who go to heaven have greater or lesser degrees of importance? Or greater demonstrations of power? Was that the case when Jesus' disciples performed their miracles?

John enters the "kingdom of God" when he dies. Or perhaps more precisely in the resurrection because he will be resurrected as member of the body of Christ.

However, I dont' believe that is what Jesus is speaking of by saying they will be "greater" than John. I believe Jesus means in terms of power and works. They can do greater things than John did.

John offered the water baptism of repentance. But the baptism of the holy Spirit is offered by Jesus. Those who are in the kindgom of God can tell people about the baptism of the holy Spirit. They can pray for people to receive the holy Spirit as was prophesied by Joel the prophet.

So, they are greater than John. Because John could not offer the people the holy Spirit. He offered them repentance and turned their hearts back to the "fathers"(the prophets). He paved the way, He made it so that Jesus would have a tilled soil to plant or a harvest ripened to be gathered in. All of Jesus most prominent disciples seem to have been disciples of John first.

But, in the old Covenant the holy Spirit was given to the prophets and not to the average Jew. So that is why everyone in the "kingdom of God" is potentially greater than John the baptist.

However, in the resurrection; John will be equal with them because he will now be a member of Christ's body like the rest of us. And he may be rewarded more greatly than many of us. After all, he was a martyr, gave his life for the message of God and he deserves credit as do all the old prophets.

 

[Deeje]

John didn't turn back the hearts of fathers to children which resulted in a curse (Malachi 4:6), resulting in the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. Malachi 4:4 said, "remember the law of Moses". That didn't happen.

Oh, but it did....all of it. John turned back the hearts of the "lost sheep" not of the hard-hearted Jews. Jesus was sent only to those "lost" ones. The destruction of Jerusalem was a punishment for the Jews' failure to keep their covenant with their God and even murdering his Christ. (Matthew 23:37-39)

Christ's followers were told to flee to the mountains, so they saved themselves by obeying Jesus instructions. I guess the Jews that remained in Jerusalem wished they'd listened. They must have seen the Christians leaving with nothing but the clothes on their backs after the first siege was abandoned four years earlier, but they felt no need to join them. When the Romans came back, it was a complete surprise that nobody saw coming and it left them with no escape.

 

[Deeje]

John was not born again. The old Covenant does not offer the rebirth experience which only comes through the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ. To be born again you must be born into the body of Christ. Therefore you have eternal life because Jesus rose from the dead.

You are born again or "anew" or "above" whichever you prefer. All are accurate in the Greek. Anyway, this takes place when you receive the baptism of the holy Spirit as in Acts chapter 2.

John the baptist on the other hand, being born a prophet was filled with the holy Spirit from his mother's womb. But, there was no rebirth yet. Because Jesus had not yet died and rose from the dead.

Hopefully that makes it clear.

I agree that John was not born again but I will go further to say that I don't believe he was ever given that privilege. Why do I say that? Because only those who are taken into the new covenant will be granted entry into the kingdom of God. That covenant was inaugurated on Passover night of 33C.E. but John was already in his grave. "The dead in Christ" are those who are part of the new covenant. These alone will rule with Christ in his kingdom. John never received the holy spirit like the disciples of Jesus did....he was born with a special role, but I do not believe that he will be part of the heavenly kingdom. No one who died before Jesus were taken into the new covenant. No one went to heaven before Jesus and no one went there after him. They had to wait until Jesus received his kingship and began to rule in the midst of his enemies. (Psalm 110:1-2; Daniel 7:13-14)

John enters the "kingdom of God" when he dies. Or perhaps more precisely in the resurrection because he will be resurrected as member of the body of Christ.

Paul said that no one was to be resurrected until Christ returned.

1 Thessalonians 4: 13-17...."Moreover, brothers, we do not want you to be ignorant about those who are sleeping in death, so that you may not sorrow as the rest do who have no hope. 14 For if we have faith that Jesus died and rose again, so too God will bring with him those who have fallen asleep in death through Jesus. 15 For this is what we tell you by Jehovah’s word, that we the living who survive to the presence of the Lord will in no way precede those who have fallen asleep in death; 16 because the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel’s voice and with God’s trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first. 17 Afterward we the living who are surviving will, together with them, be caught away in clouds to meet the Lord in the air; and thus we will always be with the Lord."

Those who died did not go anywhere.....they "slept" in their graves, waiting for Jesus' call when all of his anointed ones rise from their graves, and Jesus takes them home to the place he went to prepare for them. There is a timeframe (1 Corinthians 15:22-24)....when Christ returned, he was going to call the "dead in Christ" out of their graves "first" and any of his 'saints' who are still living in their mortal flesh, will be transformed immediately to be caught away to meet their Lord and be escorted "home".

However, I dont' believe that is what Jesus is speaking of by saying they will be "greater" than John. I believe Jesus means in terms of power and works. They can do greater things than John did.

Where do you think they will perform these powerful works?

It seems clear to me that John the Baptist was never destined to go to heaven.....neither were all the pre-Christian men of faith, like Abraham. Noah, Moses, David or Elijah. One reason is, that it was never a Jewish expectation.....Messiah's kingdom was always earthly.....these will probably have very important roles in the earthly realms of the Kingdom as they expected.

So, they are greater than John. Because John could not offer the people the holy Spirit. He offered them repentance and turned their hearts back to the "fathers"(the prophets). He paved the way, He made it so that Jesus would have a tilled soil to plant or a harvest ripened to be gathered in. All of Jesus most prominent disciples seem to have been disciples of John first.

True.....without John fulfilling his role, there would have been none prepared to accept the Christ.
Still John was not without God's spirit.

But, in the old Covenant the holy Spirit was given to the prophets and not to the average Jew. So that is why everyone in the "kingdom of God" is potentially greater than John the baptist.

Having God's spirit didn't just mean the ability to perform miracles. John had holy spirit right from his birth. (Luke 1:15)

However, in the resurrection; John will be equal with them because he will now be a member of Christ's body like the rest of us. And he may be rewarded more greatly than many of us. After all, he was a martyr, gave his life for the message of God and he deserves credit as do all the old prophets.

I do not see that anyone who died before Jesus can be a part of the heavenly arrangement. Only those taken into the new covenant will rule with Christ. Paul said that these would "rise first" as those chosen from among mankind for that role. The "first resurrection" is for the ones who will be kings and priests, ruling with Christ over the earth. (Revelation 20:6) Priests needs sinners for whom to perform their priestly duties....there are no sinners in heaven.

 

[Deeje]

You miss represent the bible as bad as you miss represent me.

Or as badly as you represent yourself?

John the Baptist also baptized the "brood of vipers", who were trying to escape the "wrath to come" (Mt 3:7).
They were told that if they didn't provide good fruit in line with their repentance, they would be tossed into the fire.

Just because they came to the baptism, doesn't mean that John baptized them. The Pharisees often came to see what Jesus was doing in order to find fault with him. They probably did the same to John who, like Jesus, did not have a good word to say about them. Any that did get baptized were warned about doing so under false pretenses.

And John didn't turn back the hearts of the fathers to the children, and subsequently the land was smitten with a curse (Malachi 4:6). I would seriously suggest you use a different bible reference book .

Or perhaps you need to? John most certainly turned the "lost sheep" back to their God. That was his sole purpose in being born. You seem to want to paint him as a failure....?

The baptism of water was symbolic, and no one was baptized twice by water. The words of John were the same as Yeshua, which was "repent; the kingdom of heaven is at hand". The difference was that Yeshua healed the blind, etc.

Well since the Baptism John performed was for repentance over sins committed against the Law, baptism is the immersion of something under water.
When Jesus came to the Jordan, he was not requesting baptism for sins committed because he was sinless. John balked at the idea, but Jesus said to let it be this one time....what did Jesus' baptism mean? What did the baptism of all those who became Christians mean? What baptism did Gentiles undergo? They did not need John's baptism.

Malachi 4: 4“Remember the law of Moses My servant, even the statutes and ordinances which I commanded him in Horeb for all Israel.

5“Behold, I am going to send you Elijah the prophet before the coming of the great and terrible day of the LORD. 6“He will restore the hearts of the fathers to their children and the hearts of the children to their fathers, so that I will not come and smite the land with a curse.”

Like many other prophecies, Malachi had a message for the nation of Israel at the time it was given. It also had a measure of fulfillment when Jesus was on earth, as proved by quotations from it in the Greek Scriptures. But, as with other prophecies, it finds its major fulfillment in this greatest of all critical periods, as shown by the reference to the “coming of the great and fear-inspiring day of Jehovah,” with the impending danger of Jehovah’s ‘actually striking the earth with a devoting of it to destruction.’ (Malachi 4:5-6)

We have not seen the "great and fear inspiring day of Jehovah".....yet.

 

[74x12]

I agree that John was not born again but I will go further to say that I don't believe he was ever given that privilege. Why do I say that? Because only those who are taken into the new covenant will be granted entry into the kingdom of God. That covenant was inaugurated on Passover night of 33C.E. but John was already in his grave. "The dead in Christ" are those who are part of the new covenant. These alone will rule with Christ in his kingdom. John never received the holy spirit like the disciples of Jesus did....he was born with a special role, but I do not believe that he will be part of the heavenly kingdom. No one who died before Jesus were taken into the new covenant. No one went to heaven before Jesus and no one went there after him. They had to wait until Jesus received his kingship and began to rule in the midst of his enemies. (Psalm 110:1-2; Daniel 7:13-14)

The new Covenant is the sure mercies of David which is everlasting life from the dead. (Isaiah 55:3, Acts 13:34) And is the resurrection. (Isaiah 49:8, John 11:25) Whoever is in the resurrection has entered the new Covenant. It's just that since 33 AD people get directly(in their life time) into the new Covenant because they receive an "earnest of their inheritance" even though they must wait for the full redemption of the purchased possession. (Ephesians 1:14)

In other words, those in the new Covenant get resurrection power now in the inner-person and will later have the body itself resurrected and glorified. (Philippians 3:21)

So this is why I know John the Baptist will also be a member of the body of Christ when he is resurrected.

Paul said that no one was to be resurrected until Christ returned.

1 Thessalonians 4: 13-17...."Moreover, brothers, we do not want you to be ignorant about those who are sleeping in death, so that you may not sorrow as the rest do who have no hope. 14 For if we have faith that Jesus died and rose again, so too God will bring with him those who have fallen asleep in death through Jesus. 15 For this is what we tell you by Jehovah’s word, that we the living who survive to the presence of the Lord will in no way precede those who have fallen asleep in death; 16 because the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel’s voice and with God’s trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first. 17 Afterward we the living who are surviving will, together with them, be caught away in clouds to meet the Lord in the air; and thus we will always be with the Lord."

Correct, no one will be physically resurrected until Christ returns.

The "dead in Christ" are "absent from the body" but "present with the Lord". (2 Corinthians 5:8)

So, they are disembodied but their spirits are with Christ. It is a kind of "sleep" or in other words a rest. (Revelation 13:14)

Those who died did not go anywhere.....they "slept" in their graves, waiting for Jesus' call when all of his anointed ones rise from their graves, and Jesus takes them home to the place he went to prepare for them. There is a timeframe (1 Corinthians 15:22-24)....when Christ returned, he was going to call the "dead in Christ" out of their graves "first" and any of his 'saints' who are still living in their mortal flesh, will be transformed immediately to be caught away to meet their Lord and be escorted "home".

Before Christ came they slept in their graves so to speak. That is they went to "shoal" or the grave and there in shoal the righteous saved went to Abraham's bosom, but now I personally believe they are with Christ in heaven. However, that's my own opinion. Either way they are certainly with Christ.

Where do you think they will perform these powerful works?

It seems clear to me that John the Baptist was never destined to go to heaven.....neither were all the pre-Christian men of faith, like Abraham. Noah, Moses, David or Elijah. One reason is, that it was never a Jewish expectation.....Messiah's kingdom was always earthly.....these will probably have very important roles in the earthly realms of the Kingdom as they expected.

Well, the new Jerusalem itself is coming down to be on the earth in the end and God Himself will be on earth.

Having God's spirit didn't just mean the ability to perform miracles. John had holy spirit right from his birth. (Luke 1:15)

Yes.

I do not see that anyone who died before Jesus can be a part of the heavenly arrangement. Only those taken into the new covenant will rule with Christ. Paul said that these would "rise first" as those chosen from among mankind for that role. The "first resurrection" is for the ones who will be kings and priests, ruling with Christ over the earth. (Revelation 20:6) Priests needs sinners for whom to perform their priestly duties....there are no sinners in heaven.

I don't agree here with you.

In the resurrection those who came before Christ (and were saved) will be equal with those who come after Christ. Because, all of them were only saved through Christ's sacrifice. We are all equally saved by the mercy of God.

For example David was forgiven for murder and adultery. Two crimes that were punishable by death according to the Law of Moses. And there is no sacrifice in the Law of Moses that cleanses those two sins. The blood of bulls, goats and lambs are insufficient to cleanse these sins. In fact David in Psalm 51 says outright that he would give sacrifice but God would not be pleased. David knew the only thing that would please God in this case was a repentant heart.

"For thou desirest not sacrifice; else would I give it: thou delightest not in burnt offering. The sacrifices of God are a broken spirit: a broken and a contrite heart, O God, thou wilt not despise."​

Therefore, we conclude that David and others like him (see Ezekiel 33:12) were forgivable in the old Covenant because God forgave by looking forward to Jesus' sacrifice. (Hebrews 9:22) Not because the blood of bulls or goats. (Hebrews 10:4) In other words Jesus died for all those who came before Him and those who come after.

So I conclude that in the resurrection they're all equally members of Christ's body. Because if anyone wants to be raised to eternal life they must be a member of Christ's body. Jesus Himself bodily is the resurrection.

Jesus is speaking in Isaiah 26:19. the word "body" or corpse literally in Hebrew is singular tense. Everyone raised to life will be raised together with Jesus' body. This is why Jesus says "I am the resurrection and the Life". You can't be raised to everlasting life outside the body of Christ.

Thy dead men shall live, together with my dead body shall they arise. Awake and sing, ye that dwell in dust: for thy dew is as the dew of herbs, and the earth shall cast out the dead. (Isaiah 26:19)​

 

[Faithofchristian]

For Christians....concerning John the Baptist, Jesus said....

11 Truly, I say to you, among those born of women there has arisen no one greater than John the Baptist. Yet the one who is least in the kingdom of heaven is greater than he."

Bible Gateway passage: Matthew 11:11 - English Standard Version

What do you think Jesus meant by this? Please include scripture to support your answer.

To answer your question, First notice Jesus said ( among those born of women)

Who are they, that are not born of women?

What Jesus is meaning by ( There has arisen no one greater than John the Baptist)
That John the Baptist is greater than all the other Prophets that were born by women.

This being that there will be no more Prophets, after John, for John the Baptist is the last of Gods Holy Prophets.
Matthew 11:11-13.

 

[Faithofchristian]

The "devil", the "false prophet", and the "beast" both have apparently everlasting life, for their torment is apparently "forever and ever" (Revelation 20:11). As you say John the Baptist was righteous, and does not have the same outcome as the "false prophet". But Paul, as a false prophet, had greater affect on men than John the Baptist. Keep in mind that the "false prophet", and the "beast" all had "demon spirits" (Revelation 16:13-14).

So what your saying is that Paul is a false prophet.
But yet Christ Jesus chosen Paul to be his Prophet to give his Gosple message to the Gentiles.
But yet according to you, Paul is a false prophet, But yet according to Christ Jesus chosen Paul to take his Gosple message to the Gentiles. Acts 9:1-15
So how does this work that your saying one thing and Christ Jesus saying the opposite of what your saying.

 

[Dawnofhope]

I see John's role as more important in the first appearance of Jesus rather than any role in his return. I do not see any mention of John in that event.

In is somewhat of a digression but there are two important points.

There are prophecies that are applicable to both Jesus and His return.

The only example of the 'return' of an actual prophet in the New Testament is Elijah as John the Baptist. Therefore when Christ speaks of His return it is as Elijah has returned.

But the question remains....why is "one who is least in the kingdom of heaven greater than he"?

Who is a least one in the Kingdom of Heaven who is greater than John...and why?

Christ of course.

John 5:30, John 5:19

 

[Faithofchristian]

In is somewhat of a digression but there are two important points.

There are prophecies that are applicable to both Jesus and His return.

The only example of the 'return' of an actual prophet in the New Testament is Elijah as John the Baptist. Therefore when Christ speaks of His return it is as Elijah has returned.



Christ of course.

John 5:30, John 5:19

As to how do you get the return of Christ Jesus out of John 5:19 & John 5:30.
When Christ Jesus spoke nothing about his return.

 

[Faithofchristian]

Let me just separate these jumbled thoughts.

"Everyone who has been born from God does not practice sin, for His seed remains in such one, and he cannot practice sin, for he has been born from God."

OK....good so far....



Who said Paul is a false prophet? Where does the Bible say that Paul is a bad guy? Where dies it identify Paul with the tares?
I always wonder how people can twist scripture to make someone out to be NOT what the Bible says they are. If the Bible is God's word, then don't you think he would have excluded Paul's contribution to the Christian scriptures completely if that was the case? Would God have been powerless to do that, deliberately causing confusion for those who would come later?



Having Elijah's spirit had nothing to do with displays of power. It was his heralding the coming of the Messiah that was his primary role, which John carried out well. He had Elijah’s “spirit,” his drive and force......he spoke the words of God; words that exerted strong power; he was able very successfully to “turn back the hearts of fathers to children and the disobedient ones to the practical wisdom of righteous ones, to get ready for Jehovah a prepared people.” (Luke 1:17)



“Look! I am sending to you E·liʹjah the prophet before the coming of the great and awe-inspiring day of Jehovah."

The prophet Elijah was long dead, but the one who manifested Elijah's spirit was identified by Jesus as John the Baptist. (Matthew 11:14)



The nation of Israel was in a poor spiritual state when John began his preaching and baptizing about 6 months before Jesus presented himself for baptism in the Jordan River. His job was to "turn back the hearts of fathers to children and the disobedient ones to the practical wisdom of righteous ones, to get ready for Jehovah a prepared people." Most of Israel under influence from the corrupt Pharisees of the day, did not turn back, but the ones who accepted Jesus did. They had been baptized by John in preparation for hearing the words of the Christ. Those who embraced Jesus as Messiah were baptized again in his name.

If I may ask, In speaking about Israel, those who of Israel accepted Christ Jesus and those who did not accept Christ Jesus.

The ones who did not accept Christ Jesus. Who's children are they and who are they

The ones that did accept Christ Jesus who's children are they and who are they

Note that Paul had written in the book of Romans 9:6--"Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel"

So the ones who did not accept Christ Jesus. Who's children were they and who were they, Seeing that not all those who claimed to be of Israel, were not of Israel.

 

[Dawnofhope]

As to how do you get the return of Christ Jesus out of John 5:19 & John 5:30.
When Christ Jesus spoke nothing about his return.

Please reread my response to Deeje. The quotes were in regards the complete lowliness and submissiveness of Jesus to God, not about the return of Christ.

 

[2ndpillar]

So what your saying is that Paul is a false prophet.
But yet Christ Jesus chosen Paul to be his Prophet to give his Gosple message to the Gentiles.
But yet according to you, Paul is a false prophet, But yet according to Christ Jesus chosen Paul to take his Gosple message to the Gentiles. Acts 9:1-15
So how does this work that your saying one thing and Christ Jesus saying the opposite of what your saying.

You are confusing what Paul and his associate, the unknown author of Acts said, with what Yeshua said. Yeshua's dicussion about "false prophets" (Matthew 7:15-23) is that " I never knew you, depart from me, you who practice lawlessness" (Romans 7:6).