I can't count how many times I've heard theists brush off the Problem of Evil by just saying "free will!"
... but how would that work, exactly? Those of you who do this: exactly what do you mean by "free will" and how is it relevant?
Considering deliberate evil acts inflicted by one person on another, there's a three-step process:
1. The person has an evil desire.
2. The person chooses to act on their evil desire.
3. The person causes the evil desire to happen.
Any description of free will I've ever heard deals with step 2: the decision to act. It doesn't deal with step 1, since we generally can't choose our desires. For instance, someone who might be predisposed to adultery won't commit adultery if he isn't attracted to the person he might commit adultery with.
It also doesn't deal with step 3, since what we desire isn't necessarily physically possible. For instance, no matter how much I want to kill someone by making their head explode telekinetically, it won't happen. If I want to kill them by lightly misting them with water, I can do this, but they won't die from it.
All three steps are required for a deliberate evil act to happen, but "free will" claims only deal with step 2.
So how could a change in step 1 (e.g. taking away evil desires) or step 3 (e.g. making an evil act physically impossible) deny someone their free will in step 2?
Hi, I think you miss the point about free will, it does not equate to the ability to see your will put into action. So, for example, a person has the will to commit a crime, of any kind, however, because of the decree of God, he may be prevented from actualising that desire or will, this does not change the fact that his intention, and will is for wrong. It is this which is important. He had free will.
So for example.
A man goes to the bank, he intends to rob the bank,and he does so. His intention was to commit the crime & he was able to do so.
A man goes to the bank with the intention to rob the bank, he is prevented from doing so.
Both are equally blameworthy in their intention so in that sense, both will have earned sin do their exercising their free will.
A man goes to the bank and intends to rob the bank, but, when he gets there, his heart softens and he thinks, what was I thinking? I am not even going to go there.
His freewill came into play, he changed his mind, and because he intended something criminal but held himself to account and prevented himself from doing so, he is praiseworthy and in this case earns a good deed.
Freewill is the choices we make, not the actions that stem from that intention.
For each stage of the crime planned, there is a possibility to either be limited in the harm we can do [as God decreed exactly what He permits], or permitted to continue with the crime [God tests everyone in a test like this, the victim, the perpetrator too, so though a crime may be committed, the criminal is blameworthy, however, the victim may obtain mercy and paradise because of that.
When a person intended harm and then by freewill did not do so, [whether able to or not] but that intention, or desire was curbed, he is rewarded.
All scenarios are demonstrations of free will. Actions are according to intentions. Each person is rewarded or punished - according to what he intended, no matter what the outcome is.
That means equally, that a person may be seen to do an act that is praiseworthy, but if the intention is not praiseworthy, then the *intention* [freewill] is blameworthy. God knows best.