What does it mean to "deny" Jesus, according to the NT?

[sincerly]

Ummm, way to go totally avoiding everything I presented. Your context is simply wrong, circular and presumptive. At face value, the text is talking about his godlike qualities, and I said, the word "god" does not refer to GOD alone. The "Fulness of godhood" is talking about a state of godliness, i.e. Angelicness. Would you like to try actually addressing what I said about the grammar and how the word "Deity" and "Divinity" in English can be used to define qualities? Are you even aware that the BIble is not written in English? Do you want to try taking on the grammatical issues I presented or are you content to repeat yourself without addressing the Greek grammar and Theological issue in question?

And with good cause, Peter and Paul referred to the Godhead-- that which was above all other of creation. GOD---and Jesus was the fullness of the BEING GOD. (Col.2:2), "That their hearts might be comforted, being knit together in love, and unto all riches of the full assurance of understanding, to the acknowledgement of the mystery of God, and of the Father, and of Christ;"

Not just "quality", but BEING. (Remember--that other aspect of the word.)
"Issues" concerning the topic have been addressed--- I'm not the "subject/topic/issue".

 

[Shermana]

And with good cause, Peter and Paul referred to the Godhead-- that which was above all other of creation. GOD---and Jesus was the fullness of the BEING GOD. (Col.2:2), "That their hearts might be comforted, being knit together in love, and unto all riches of the full assurance of understanding, to the acknowledgement of the mystery of God, and of the Father, and of Christ;"

Not just "quality", but BEING. (Remember--that other aspect of the word.)
"Issues" concerning the topic have been addressed--- I'm not the "subject/topic/issue".

Colossians 2:2 is not talking about the same concept. The mystery of God is not the same concept as Godhead. Colossians 2:2 is a great proof text AGAINST the Trinity. Here's what it actually says

Young's Literal Translation
that their hearts may be comforted, being united in love, and to all riches of the full assurance of the understanding, to the full knowledge of the secret of the God and Father, and of the Christ,

"God and Father" "And of the Christ". God and Father here are the same being. "And of the Christ" means another separate being. The Greek is delineating that "God and Father" is one being, and "Christ" is another being. The word "And" can be tricky, but the Greeks probably understood when it meant "The same being" and "a separate conjunctive object". "God and Father" is the same being, but not the Christ, because it's separated by the "And of".

HOWEVER, this verse apparently has some manuscript issues with different versions.

ΠΡΟΣ ΚΟΛΟΣΣΑΕΙΣ 2:2 Greek NT: Tischendorf 8th Ed. with Diacritics
ἵνα παρακαλέω ὁ καρδία αὐτός συμβιβάζω ἐν ἀγάπη καί εἰς πᾶς πλοῦτος ὁ πληροφορία ὁ σύνεσις εἰς ἐπίγνωσις ὁ μυστήριον ὁ θεός Χριστός
ΠΡΟΣ ΚΟΛΟΣΣΑΕΙΣ 2:2 Greek NT: Stephanus Textus Receptus (1550, with accents)
ἵνα παρακληθῶσιν αἱ καρδίαι αὐτῶν συμβιβασθέντων ἐν ἀγάπῃ καὶ εἰς πάντα πλοῦτον τῆς πληροφορίας τῆς συνέσεως εἰς ἐπίγνωσιν τοῦ μυστηρίου τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ πατρὸς καὶ τοῦ Χριστοῦ

In this event I think the Textus Receptus may have it right, but I'm not sure. Either way, that's the version you're going by, and it clearly differentiates "The God and Father" and "The Christ" as two different beings.

 

[sincerly]

Colossians 2:2 is not talking about the same concept. The mystery of God is not the same concept as Godhead. Colossians 2:2 is a great proof text AGAINST the Trinity. Here's what it actually says "God and Father" "And of the Christ". God and Father here are the same being. "And of the Christ" means another separate being. The Greek is delineating that "God and Father" is one being, and "Christ" is another being. The word "And" can be tricky, but the Greeks probably understood when it meant "The same being" and "a separate conjunctive object". "God and Father" is the same being, but not the Christ, because it's separated by the "And of".

HOWEVER, this verse apparently has some manuscript issues with different versions.

ΠΡΟΣ ΚΟΛΟΣΣΑΕΙΣ 2:2 Greek NT: Tischendorf 8th Ed. with Diacritics
ἵνα παρακαλέω ὁ καρδία αὐτός συμβιβάζω ἐν ἀγάπη καί εἰς πᾶς πλοῦτος ὁ πληροφορία ὁ σύνεσις εἰς ἐπίγνωσις ὁ μυστήριον ὁ θεός Χριστός
ΠΡΟΣ ΚΟΛΟΣΣΑΕΙΣ 2:2 Greek NT: Stephanus Textus Receptus (1550, with accents)
ἵνα παρακληθῶσιν αἱ καρδίαι αὐτῶν συμβιβασθέντων ἐν ἀγάπῃ καὶ εἰς πάντα πλοῦτον τῆς πληροφορίας τῆς συνέσεως εἰς ἐπίγνωσιν τοῦ μυστηρίου τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ πατρὸς καὶ τοῦ Χριστοῦ

In this event I think the Textus Receptus may have it right, but I'm not sure. Either way, that's the version you're going by, and it clearly differentiates "The God and Father" and "The Christ" as two different beings.

Right! I've never said or inplied that the Trinity meant the same individuals. (One and the same Being.)
Col.2:9 is Paul's continuing to define (2:2)---the "Deity"/"Divinity" of Jesus Christ being GOD the SON" ----GOD in the fullest sense of the word--"Diety".
(Col.1:13-14), The Father "Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and hath translated [us] into the kingdom of his dear Son: In whom we have redemption through his blood, [even] the forgiveness of sins:"

 

[Shermana]

Right! I've never said or inplied that the Trinity meant the same individuals. (One and the same Being.)
Col.2:9 is Paul's continuing to define (2:2)---the "Deity"/"Divinity" of Jesus Christ being GOD the SON" ----GOD in the fullest sense of the word--"Diety".
(Col.1:13-14), The Father "Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and hath translated [us] into the kingdom of his dear Son: In whom we have redemption through his blood, [even] the forgiveness of sins:"

If they're not the same Beings then that means denying Jesus means something else than denying that He's the "human Incarnation of the Father." He's not. He's the Firstborn of Creation. The Highest Created Being.

 

[sincerly]

If they're not the same Beings then that means denying Jesus means something else than denying that He's the "human Incarnation of the Father." He's not. He's the Firstborn of Creation. The Highest Created Being.

Yes, Denying Jesus is in: That HE is GOD the SON----HIS Deity---with GOD the Father.
That HIS Sacrificed life(Blood) was done for the redemption/propitiation of Mankinds dealth penalty.
That Jesus died upon the Cross.
That HIS mission was to seek and save the lost of mankind.

I have never claimed Jesus to be the "human incarnation of the Father". That sounds like it came from the same "source" as other of your "claims."

 

[Hawkins]

What are the criteria of things one must deny in order to be classified as "denying Jesus" - according to the NT? I dont want any church doctrine related opinions, I just want to know specifically what the NT says on the issue, and preferably just from Matthew, Mark, or Luke.

Does "to deny Jesus" mean:

1. To deny that truth can be found in his message?
2. To deny the miracles he performed?
3. To deny He is God?

or something else? I'm just curious what the NT specifically says on the subject.. what are the criteria of things one must deny in order to be classified as denying Jesus, according to the NT? Thanks

"Denying Jesus" is a violation of what "Believe Jesus" is as specified in the New Covenant. This will be judged by Jesus Christ Himself on the Judgement Day.

So all you need to do is to read the Bible, believe in Him, listen to what He says and obey what He tells to do. Try your best to do so to come to His satisfaction such that you'll be able to pass His judgment.