Humanistheart
Well-Known Member
What does the NT say about premarital sex? Can anyone provide verses concerning this?
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"Now to the unmarried and the widows I say: It is good for them to stay unmarried, as I am. But if they cannot control themselves, they should marry, for it is better to marry than to burn with passion." (1 Corinthians 7:8-9)
"Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness, Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies, Envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told you in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God." (Galatians 5:19-21, KJV)
"Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body. What? know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own? For ye are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God's." (1 Corinthians 6:18-20, KJV)
The majority of passages I can find on the topic seem to be written by Paul in his letters to the church, but I did find these two in Revelations coming from Jesus.
Jesus told the church at Pergamum that He had a few things against them, including the fact that they held to the doctrines of someone who led God's people to commit fornication:
"But I [Jesus] have a few things against thee, because thou hast there them that hold the doctrine of Balaam, who taught Balac to cast a stumbling block before the children of Israel, to eat things sacrificed unto idols, and to commit fornication." (Revelation 2:14, KJV)Jesus told the church at Thyatira that He had a few things against them, including the fact that they were putting up with someone who led them into fornication and idolatry:
"Notwithstanding I [Jesus] have a few things against thee, because thou sufferest that woman Jezebel, which calleth herself a prophetess, to teach and to seduce my servants to commit fornication, and to eat things sacrificed unto idols." (Revelation 2:20, KJV)
But the thing I am finding here is the debate as to whether or not 'fornication' includes 'premarital sex', so I could be helping you find your answer, or I could be completely irrelevant depending on that particular issue.
How did jesus do this in revelation? Ithought he was dead at that point (or ressurected from a christian persepctive)?
Are there any passages where jesus speaks to this topic? Or are all the references made by others?
This is were Jesus says It is better not to have Sex at all.
Matthew 19:3-12 (New International Version)
3Some Pharisees came to him to test him. They asked, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any and every reason?"
4"Haven't you read," he replied, "that at the beginning the Creator 'made them male and female,'[a] 5and said, 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh'? 6So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate."
7"Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?"
8Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. 9I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."
10The disciples said to him, "If this is the situation between a husband and wife, it is better not to marry."
11Jesus replied, "Not everyone can accept this word, but only those to whom it has been given. 12For some are eunuchs because they were born that way; others were made that way by men; and others have renounced marriage[c]because of the kingdom of heaven. The one who can accept this should accept it."
I was able to find this free uncopywrited information.
Question:
"Fornication in the Bible seems to refer to adultery, incest, homosexuality, and bestiality. I don't see anyone being called a sinner for engaging in premarital sex."
Answer:
In Bible translations and Bible commentaries and so on, when they talk about premarital sex they often refer to it as "fornication." Here's what the word "fornication" means:
So "fornication" refers to voluntary sex outside of marriage, and the earliest recorded use of this word in English (with the meaning of premarital sex) was in the early 14th century, around 1303.
- "Sexual intercourse between a man and a woman who are not married to each other." (West's Encyclopedia of American Law )
- "1. Noun - Unlawful sexual intercourse on the part of an unmarried person; the act of such illicit sexual intercourse between a man and a woman as does not by law amount to adultery." (The People's Dictionary )
- "1. voluntary sexual intercourse between two unmarried persons or two persons not married to each other." (Dictionary.com Unabridged )
- "Fornication: Sexual intercourse that is "illicit", outside of marriage." (Medical Dictionary )
- "fornication n. sexual intercourse between a man and woman who are not married to each other." (Law Dictionary )
- " VIRGINIA BEACH -- A lawsuit that accuses a Virginia Beach man of intentionally passing herpes to his lover may have implications for state law on fornication between unmarried adults.
Attorneys for a woman identified only as Jane Doe filed suit this month in Circuit Court, claiming that a Virginia Beach man gave the woman genital herpes after the two began having sexual relations in April ." (SUIT SAYING MAN SPREAD HERPES COULD AFFECT FORNICATION LAW )- "Main Entry: for·ni·ca·tion
Pronunciation: \for-ne-'ka-shen\
Function: noun
Date: 14th century
: consensual sexual intercourse between two persons not married to each other" (Merriam-Webster Online Dictionary , emphasis added)- "NOUN: Sexual intercourse between partners who are not married to each other.
WORD HISTORY: The word fornication had a lowly beginning suitable to what has long been the low moral status of the act to which it refers. The Latin word fornix, from which fornicti, the ancestor of fornication, is derived, meant "a vault, an arch." The term also referred to a vaulted cellar or similar place where prostitutes plied their trade. This sense of fornix in Late Latin yielded the verb fornicr, "to commit fornication," from which is derived fornicti, "whoredom, fornication." Our word is first recorded in Middle English about 1303." (The American Heritage Dictionary of the English Language: Fourth Edition. 2000. , emphasis added)- "c.1300, from O.Fr. fornication, from L.L. fornicationem (nom. fornicatio), from fornicari "fornicate," from L. fornix (gen. fornicis) "brothel," originally "arch, vaulted chamber" (Roman prostitutes commonly solicited from under the arches of certain buildings), from fornus "oven of arched or domed shape." Strictly, "voluntary sex between an unmarried man and an unmarried woman;" extended in the Bible to adultery." (Online Etymology Dictionary , emphasis added)
- "The Latin verb fornicare, which is the source of English fornicate and fornication, is derived from the noun fornix, 'arch, vault, arched basement'. Because brothels were sometimes established in the Roman vaults, fornix itself took on the sense 'brothel' and the derived verb fornicare was used with much the same meaning as modern English fornicate. The noun fornication appears in English at the beginning of the fourteenth century, some two hundred and fifty years before the verb fornicate. In 1303 Robert Mannyng of Brunne in his penitential manual Handlyng Synne did his best to define the noun with the utmost discretion, and though his fastidiousness resulted in some vagueness it is dispelled in part by the context: "'Fornycacyoun' [ys], whan two vnweddyde haue mysdoun." ("Fornication" is when two unmarried people have done wrong.)" (The Merriam-Webster new book of word histories, p.182-183 , emphasis added)
No idea. I am not at all intelligent with the Bible, the information I looked up seem to suggest this, I am taking their particular word it, but I will see what else I can find.
Strange we are two atheists in the Christian forum, being the only ones discussing this issue so far.
So the debate over premarital sex vs fornication is a matter of definition?
Perhaps the christians will comment later on tonight?
Well.. in terms of defining what Jesus was actually hinting out. There words 'premarital sex' don't seem to appear in the Bible. But if Jesus was including 'premarital sex' in his term 'fornication', then it will make all the difference in the world (to a Christian.)
Interesting. I read this though as only applying to marriage v devorce. Is this relevant to say, a man who has sex with a woman before marriage?