Ok, so you're saying that music theory (as in analysis and construction of Western music) is termed more as empirically observed data, than anything else.I can see that actually.
I guess it's a bit like arithmetic.
"2 + 2 = 4". The proof is in the observation of it.
"Dominant resolves to Tonic". The proof is in the observation of it. It just is.
Oops, not so fast: 1 + 1 = 2 is an
a priori truth (true by definition only).
(Here is the actual proof (from the Peano Postulates, which define the natural numbers N.) N is the smallest set satisfying these postulates: (I'll colour it green)
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P1. 1 is in N.
P2. If x is in N, then its "successor" x' is in N.
P3. There is no x such that x' = 1.
P4. If x isn't 1, then there is a y in N such that y' = x.
P5. If S is a subset of N, 1 is in S, and the implication
(x in S => x' in S) holds, then S = N.
Then you have to define addition recursively:
Def: Let a and b be in N. If b = 1, then define a + b = a'
(using P1 and P2). If b isn't 1, then let c' = b, with c in N (using P4), and define a + b = (a + c)'.
Then you have to define 2:
Def: 2 = 1'
2 is in N by P1, P2, and the definition of 2.
Theorem: 1 + 1 = 2
Proof: Use the first part of the definition of + with a = b = 1.
Then 1 + 1 = 1' = 2 Q.E.D.
Note: There is an alternate formulation of the Peano Postulates which replaces 1 with 0 in P1, P3, P4, and P5. Then you have to change the definition of addition to this:
Def: Let a and b be in N. If b = 0, then define a + b = a.
If b isn't 0, then let c' = b, with c in N, and define
a + b = (a + c)'.
You also have to define 1 = 0', and 2 = 1'. Then the proof of the Theorem above is a little different:
Proof: Use the second part of the definition of + first:
1 + 1 = (1 + 0)'
Now use the first part of the definition of + on the sum in parentheses: 1 + 1 = (1)' = 1' = 2 )
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Whew. As you can see, there is no observation involved in the proof for this elementary, mathematical truth. It is true by the definition provided above. Thats what makes it an
a priori truth. In contrast, an
a posteriori truth is based on solid empirical observation.
Now lets examine the status of the other example you provided, namely, that in music theory,
Dominant resolves to Tonic. Is this true by definition, or is it true based on empirical observation/evidence?
You can argue for the latter, but I would caution against such a move. Music is like the proverbial falling tree in the forest; does it make a sound? Yes, it makes a sound, but a sound is only a sensory perception, like a colour or a taste. Music makes a private sound that is perceived only in a persons brain.
By its very nature, music (a perception) is a purely subjective experience.
This is not to condemn music as nonexistent, but only to rule out the possibility of empirical observation. Therefore, the assertion the Dominant resolves to the Tonic is, necessarily, true. True only - by definition.
I see no escape from this conclusion (even though, I, myself, perceive the Dominant resolving to the Tonic whenever I strum a D chord in the key of G and return - resolve - to G Major).
The (frustrating) subjectivity of music, in my opinion, precludes the possibility of falsification. It is this subjectivity alone that precludes music theory from advancing to the status of a scientific theory.
Im afraid this undeniable subjectivity of music condemns your following argument.
If people listened to what is termed as a cadence, for example, and they heard no resolution, or a leading tone... that was not heard/observed "to lead", ...the very "terms" themselves would lose their "correctness of meaning".
The "Laws" of harmony, would be discarded, by default.
You now see, that if the subjective impressions of one or more individuals perceptions were admissible as legitimate empirical (objective) evidence, then our best scientific theories could easily be discardedand without legitimate justification! Subjective accounts, by their very nature, are not objectively verifiable and must be inadmissible as any kind of reliable evidence.
The proof is in the observation. Is that priori [a priori]?
Just to get some terms straight, knowledge that is said to be
a priori (pronounced
ah pree-or-eye or
ah pree-or-ee) is knowledge that is true by definition,
prior to any observed knowledge. (E.g., an unmarried man is a bachelor is true
a priori; its truth is known
prior to experience).
If I could succinctly understand why music theory is not the same as scientific theory, I could probably come to understand the latter with better clarity.
I hope you may be closer now to finding the answer.
To briefly recap, a scientific theory is based upon an edifice of reliable, repeatedly testable, observations. At the foundation of the edifice is (1) a fact: an observable natural occurrence (say, gravity). Higher up is (2) a Law: a description of this natural occurrence, usually expressed as a mathematical equation, and finally (3) a Scientific Theory: a complete explanation of the observable natural occurrence (the hows and whys).
Where does this leave music? Without any reliable
objective (empirical) evidence to call upon, no fact(s) can be obtained. So, any theory of music is doomed to remain true by definition, and can never be elevated to the status of a scientific theory.
But so what? Thats no disgrace. Music is no less wonderful. And music theory continues to teach and inspire students to grow as musicians and reap the benefits of understanding the complexities of this rich unique experience.
I think it best we leave the scientists out of it!