WHERE IS THE SCRIPTURE THAT SAYS GOD'S 4th COMMANDMENT IS ABOLISHED?

[3rdAngel]

3rdAngel said: The name Jesus (/ˈdʒiːzəs/) is a masculine given name derived from Iēsous (Ἰησοῦς; Iesus in Classical Latin) the Ancient Greek form of the Hebrew name Yeshua (ישוע).[1][2] As its roots lie in the name Isho in Aramaic and Yeshua in Hebrew, it is etymologically related to another biblical name, Joshua. I suggest you read the complete Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek to English history and etymology (Jesus name - Wikipedia) which is in disagreement with you here.

Your response here

My point was that the pronunciation of "Jesus", to a latin speaker, comes out as earth pig. Ge as in earth, sus as in pig. The importance of the name is in its meaning, which is that the LORD saves, not the "son of man"/"Lord". The "son of man", who now sits at the right hand of the LORD, in heaven, is Lord, not LORD (Psalms 110), and after judgment of the LORD (Ez 34), the tribulation and judgment of Mt 24 & 25, David will be made sole shepherd/prince (Ez 34:20-24). Or in the terms of Jeremiah 30:9, David will be made king. Right now, according to Yeshua, the ruler of the world is not him, and his message is that the "son of man" does not return until "immediately after the "tribulation" (Matthew 24).

The bible is written in Hebrew and Greek not latin. Jesus is Lord (John 20:28) according to the scriptures and the Greek form Ἰησοῦς translated Jesus (G2424) means "Jehovah is salvation" The is from the scripture in Matthew 1:21 that is also in agreement with the Greek word definition that has the Angel telling Mary what to name Jesus here; "And she shall bring forth a son, and you shall call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins." This is kind of all disagreeing with you by the way if you did not notice.

 

[3rdAngel]

"All scripture" would pertain to what Timothy was taught in his youth. Your NT is a later compilation of the message of the "enemy"/"devil", "planted" in the same "field"/book, next to the "message" of the "son of man" (Mt 13). As for the judgement at the "end of the age" (Mt 13:30), the tares, the wicked, who "commit lawlessness" (Mt 13:37-42), will be the "first" to be "gathered" (Mt 13:30) and are thrown into the furnace of fire.

That would be true for someone that does not believe Jesus is God. For those of us who do your post is simply a statement of unbelief and has no truth in it.

 

[3rdAngel]

"All scripture" would pertain to what Timothy was taught in his youth. Your NT is a later compilation of the message of the "enemy"/"devil", "planted" in the same "field"/book, next to the "message" of the "son of man" (Mt 13). As for the judgement at the "end of the age" (Mt 13:30), the tares, the wicked, who "commit lawlessness" (Mt 13:37-42), will be the "first" to be "gathered" (Mt 13:30) and are thrown into the furnace of fire.

That would be true for someone that does not believe Jesus is God. For those of us who do your post is simply a statement of unbelief and has no truth in it. Sin is defined as lawlessness, unbelief and breaking anyone of Gods 10 commandments (see 1 John 3:4; John 3:36; Romans 14:23; James 2:10-11). Does it not worry you that you are wrong and will be numbered among the lost because of your unbelief in Gods promised Messiah and His Word which is the very definition of sin and lawlessness in the new testament scriptures. Those who walk that path, walk with the wicked and go to the same place at judgement according to the scriptures.

 

[2ndpillar]

That would be true for someone that does not believe Jesus is God. For those of us who do your post is simply a statement of unbelief and has no truth in it. Sin is defined as lawlessness, unbelief and breaking anyone of Gods 10 commandments (see 1 John 3:4; John 3:36; Romans 14:23; James 2:10-11). Does it not worry you that you are wrong and will be numbered among the lost because of your unbelief in Gods promised Messiah and His Word which is the very definition of sin and lawlessness in the new testament scriptures. Those who walk that path, walk with the wicked and go to the same place at judgement according to the scriptures.

God's messiah was referred to as "David", and was to be "king" (Ez 36 & 37) over the combined house of Judah and the house of Israel, in the form of "Judah"/Jews, and a reconstituted Ephraim/Joseph, on the land given to Jacob/Israel, and that they would be given a new heart and spirit, and would keep all of My statutes and that David would be made the sole "shepherd" (Ez 34) after the LORD judged between the sheep and the goats. As for "Jesus is God", well that is a bad start based on the Council of Nicaea, which was convened by the Roman emperor Constantine, in the year 325 A.D. Constantine was the "beast with two horns like a lamb" (Rev 13) who was to deceive "those who dwell on the earth". Apparently, he did a bang up job. The "two horns like a lamb", were the "wolves in sheep's clothing" (Mt 7:12-15), the "Christlike" Peter and Paul, for which Constantine built basilicas for each. Your Trinity dogma and your day of rest come from Constantine, and are a mark on your forehead and hand as signified by keeping his commandments. The difference is you are keeping the law of Constantine. Constantine's decree of 321 A.D. set the time of the day of rest as the day of his sun god, Sol Invictus, which was Sunday, for which no one could buy or sell, for he shut down all shops and government offices on Sunday.

Exodus 13:9 It shall be a sign for you on your hand and …​

WebIt shall serve as a sign to you on your hand (arm), and as a reminder on your forehead, so that the instruction (law) of the LORD may be in your mouth; for with a strong and powerful hand the LORD brought you out of Egypt.

 

[2ndpillar]

The bible is written in Hebrew and Greek not latin. Jesus is Lord (John 20:28) according to the scriptures and the Greek form Ἰησοῦς translated Jesus (G2424) means "Jehovah is salvation" The is from the scripture in Matthew 1:21 that is also in agreement with the Greek word definition that has the Angel telling Mary what to name Jesus here; "And she shall bring forth a son, and you shall call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins." This is kind of all disagreeing with you by the way if you did not notice.

The name "Jesus" is a 17th century construct, as J didn't exist prior to the 17th century. The name used was Yeshua, which means YHWY (LORD) is salvation. Yeshua claims to be the "son of man", whereas Yeshua stated that the "son of man" would not return until after the tribulation (Mt 24:29). Until then, the Lord, the "son of man" sits at the right hand of the LORD (YHWY) until the LORD makes his enemies a footstool for the Lord's feet (Psalms 110). Until then, he has nothing in the "ruler of the world" who is the devil, whose authority is used within the vehicle of the "beast" (kings such as Julius Caesar and his heirs/horns, such as Constantine) (Rev 13 & 17). As for being saved from your sins, I think not. One's sins are displayed per their state of health. When Yeshu forgave the sins of the lame, they walked. Obama care is the new god of the sick and dying, and yet they continue to remain sick and die. Per Jeremiah 31:30, everyone will die for their own iniquities/sins. Everyone will die, including Paul who indicated "we shall not all sleep/die". He and everyone he spoke to is dead. It is the LORD (YHWY) who will judge the people, and afterward he will appoint David as sole shepherd and prince (Ezekiel 34:20-24). Yeshua means the YHWY(LORD) is salvation, not the Lord is salvation.

 

[3rdAngel]

God's messiah was referred to as "David", and was to be "king" (Ez 36 & 37) over the combined house of Judah and the house of Israel, in the form of "Judah"/Jews, and a reconstituted Ephraim/Joseph, on the land given to Jacob/Israel, and that they would be given a new heart and spirit, and would keep all of My statutes and that David would be made the sole "shepherd" (Ez 34) after the LORD judged between the sheep and the goats.

The Messiah is not David.

As for "Jesus is God", well that is a bad start based on the Council of Nicaea, which was convened by the Roman emperor Constantine, in the year 325 A.D. Constantine was the "beast with two horns like a lamb" (Rev 13) who was to deceive "those who dwell on the earth". Apparently, he did a bang up job. The "two horns like a lamb", were the "wolves in sheep's clothing" (Mt 7:12-15), the "Christlike" Peter and Paul, for which Constantine built basilicas for each. Your Trinity dogma and your day of rest come from Constantine, and are a mark on your forehead and hand as signified by keeping his commandments. The difference is you are keeping the law of Constantine. Constantine's decree of 321 A.D. set the time of the day of rest as the day of his sun god, Sol Invictus, which was Sunday, for which no one could buy or sell, for he shut down all shops and government offices on Sunday.

Please forgive me but I do not believe your dogma or lies.

 

[3rdAngel]

The name "Jesus" is a 17th century construct, as J didn't exist prior to the 17th century. The name used was Yeshua, which means YHWY (LORD) is salvation. Yeshua claims to be the "son of man", whereas Yeshua stated that the "son of man" would not return until after the tribulation (Mt 24:29). Until then, the Lord, the "son of man" sits at the right hand of the LORD (YHWY) until the LORD makes his enemies a footstool for the Lord's feet (Psalms 110). Until then, he has nothing in the "ruler of the world" who is the devil, whose authority is used within the vehicle of the "beast" (kings such as Julius Caesar and his heirs/horns, such as Constantine) (Rev 13 & 17). As for being saved from your sins, I think not. One's sins are displayed per their state of health. When Yeshu forgave the sins of the lame, they walked. Obama care is the new god of the sick and dying, and yet they continue to remain sick and die. Per Jeremiah 31:30, everyone will die for their own iniquities/sins. Everyone will die, including Paul who indicated "we shall not all sleep/die". He and everyone he spoke to is dead. It is the LORD (YHWY) who will judge the people, and afterward he will appoint David as sole shepherd and prince (Ezekiel 34:20-24). Yeshua means the YHWY(LORD) is salvation, not the Lord is salvation.

You are totally wrong here. I suggest you read the complete Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek to English history and etymology (Jesus name - Wikipedia) which is in disagreement with you here. The bible is written in Hebrew and Greek not latin. Jesus is Lord (John 20:28) according to the scriptures and the Greek form Ἰησοῦς translated Jesus (G2424) means "Jehovah is salvation" This name Jesus from the scripture in Matthew 1:21 is also in agreement with the Greek word definition that has the Angel telling Mary what to name her baby and why here; "And she shall bring forth a son, and you shall call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins." This is kind of all disagreeing with you by the way if you did not notice.

 

[IndigoChild5559]

And what were his prophecies?

The book of Joshua.

You use the name Joshua, which means the same as Yeshua.

And yet his name in hebrew is NOT Yeshua, but Yehoshua.

 

[2ndpillar]

The book of Joshua.

And yet his name in hebrew is NOT Yeshua, but Yehoshua.

'Yahweh is salvation', Yeshua, is the name used in the first century by the common people. As for the books deemed by the scribes as the "former prophets", which includes Joshua and judges, the book of Joshua is not a book of prophecy, but a book of taking the land given to Jacob and his fathers, as stated in Joshua 1.
The book of Joshua essentially consists of three parts:

The history of the conquest of the land (1–12).
The allotment of the land to the different tribes, with the appointment of cities of refuge, the provision for the Levites (13–22), and the dismissal of the eastern tribes to their homes.
The farewell addresses of Joshua, with an account of his death (23, 24).

The "latter prophets", actual prophets, consisted of Isaiah, Jeremiah, and Ezekiel, plus 12 others, and not Joshua. And the words of Hosea 4:6, of the "latter prophets", is that "my people perish because of their lack of knowledge", possibly because the "scribes" made a lie out of the Law (Jeremiah 8:8).

As for your Hebrew, early Hebrew had no vowels. If you pronounce YHWH as Yahweh, then you have a problem pronouncing Yahweh is salvation, as Yehoshua, rather than Yahoshua. Either way, if you use the earliest bible script available, that is of the Dead Sea scrolls, it contains both Hebrew and Aramaic text. If you are using the Masoretic Text, that was compiled around 600 A.D.

New American Standard Bible Jeremiah 8:8
“How can you say, ‘We are wise, And the Law of the LORD is with us’? But behold, the lying pen of the scribes Has made it into a lie.

 

[3rdAngel]

'Yahweh is salvation', Yeshua, is the name used in the first century by the common people. As for the books deemed by the scribes as the "former prophets", which includes Joshua and judges, the book of Joshua is not a book of prophecy, but a book of taking the land given to Jacob and his fathers, as stated in Joshua 1.
The book of Joshua essentially consists of three parts:

The history of the conquest of the land (1–12).
The allotment of the land to the different tribes, with the appointment of cities of refuge, the provision for the Levites (13–22), and the dismissal of the eastern tribes to their homes.
The farewell addresses of Joshua, with an account of his death (23, 24).

The "latter prophets", actual prophets, consisted of Isaiah, Jeremiah, and Ezekiel, plus 12 others, and not Joshua. And the words of Hosea 4:6, of the "latter prophets", is that "my people perish because of their lack of knowledge", possibly because the "scribes" made a lie out of the Law (Jeremiah 8:8).

As for your Hebrew, early Hebrew had no vowels. If you pronounce YHWH as Yahweh, then you have a problem pronouncing Yahweh is salvation, as Yehoshua, rather than Yahoshua. Either way, if you use the earliest bible script available, that is of the Dead Sea scrolls, it contains both Hebrew and Aramaic text. If you are using the Masoretic Text, that was compiled around 600 A.D.

New American Standard Bible Jeremiah 8:8
“How can you say, ‘We are wise, And the Law of the LORD is with us’? But behold, the lying pen of the scribes Has made it into a lie.

You are totally wrong here. I suggest you read the complete Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek to English history and etymology (Jesus name - Wikipedia) which is in disagreement with you here. The bible is written in Hebrew and Greek not latin. Jesus is Lord (John 20:28) according to the scriptures and the Greek form Ἰησοῦς translated Jesus (G2424) means "Jehovah is salvation" This name Jesus from the scripture in Matthew 1:21 is also in agreement with the Greek word definition that has the Angel telling Mary what to name her baby and why here; "And she shall bring forth a son, and you shall call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins." This is kind of all disagreeing with you by the way if you did not notice.

Just curious.. where did you get the interpretation for your claim "Yahweh is salvation" I did not find that in your link? The literal translation of "Jesus" into English though is “Yahweh (Jehovah) is Salvation.” Are you mixing this up?

 

[2ndpillar]

You are totally wrong here. I suggest you read the complete Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek to English history and etymology (Jesus name - Wikipedia) which is in disagreement with you here. The bible is written in Hebrew and Greek not latin. Jesus is Lord (John 20:28) according to the scriptures and the Greek form Ἰησοῦς translated Jesus (G2424) means "Jehovah is salvation" This name Jesus from the scripture in Matthew 1:21 is also in agreement with the Greek word definition that has the Angel telling Mary what to name her baby and why here; "And she shall bring forth a son, and you shall call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins." This is kind of all disagreeing with you by the way if you did not notice.

You kind of miss the teaching of Yeshua, which states if you want to confirm something, it requires two witnesses (John 8:17). Matthew 1 does not even confirm itself, and leaves gaps in the genealogy, and certainly does not coincide with the genealogy of Luke. Matthew 1:21 certainly does not match Matthew 1:23, and the actual Scripture of Isaiah 7:14. As for the "message"/testimony of Yeshua, that would have been in Aramaic. And there never was some "holy name" "Jesus" in the 1st century. When the "false prophets" and their followers (bad fruit) of Mt 7:15 called on "Your name" to "perform many miracles", that name up until the 17th century was not "Jesus", because the name "Jesus" did not exist. And those who called "Lord, Lord" I will say, "I never knew you" (Mt 7:23), "you who practice lawlessness" (follow the gospel of grace).

 

[2ndpillar]

The Messiah is not David.

Please forgive me but I do not believe your dogma or lies.

The "messiah" means anointed one, and the Jews are looking for the "anointed one", which title applies to all their judges, kings, and prophets. The one they are looking for is in the lineage of David, who will lead them, as their king, when they are reunited on their own land, that was given to Jacob (Ezekiel 36 & 37), after the judgment of the LORD (Ezekiel 34). Matthew and Luke made a point to note that Yeshua was a son of David. Yeshua pointed out that he was the "son of man", and that the "son of man" would not return to gather his "elect" until "immediately" after the "tribulation" (Mt 24:29-31). The "tribulation" of Zechariah 14, when the nations come against Jerusalem, appears to be right behind the door. (Mt 24:33).

What you apparently don't believe is historical facts, and the testimony of Yeshua. Good luck with that.

 

[3rdAngel]

The "messiah" means anointed one, and the Jews are looking for the "anointed one", which title applies to all their judges, kings, and prophets. The one they are looking for is in the lineage of David, who will lead them, as their king, when they are reunited on their own land, that was given to Jacob (Ezekiel 36 & 37), after the judgment of the LORD (Ezekiel 34). Matthew and Luke made a point to note that Yeshua was a son of David. Yeshua pointed out that he was the "son of man", and that the "son of man" would not return to gather his "elect" until "immediately" after the "tribulation" (Mt 24:29-31). The "tribulation" of Zechariah 14, when the nations come against Jerusalem, appears to be right behind the door. (Mt 24:33).
What you apparently don't believe is historical facts, and the testimony of Yeshua. Good luck with that.

King David is not the promised Messiah to come.

Ezekiel 37:24-25 (Tanakh): This passage speaks of a future Davidic king, but it also implies that this figure will be different from the historical David. It states, "My servant David shall be king over them, and they shall all have one shepherd. They shall walk in My rules and be careful to obey My statutes. They shall dwell in the land that I gave to My servant Jacob, where your fathers lived. They and their children and their children's children shall dwell there forever, and David My servant shall be their prince forever." (Note: This distinction between "David My servant" and the new ruler proves a future descendant or figure who is not the historical King David; Ezekiel was written well after the literal King David's reign and did not last forever).

Jeremiah 30:9 (Tanakh): The verse mentions a future leader from the house of David, but it is not explicitly identified as King David himself. It says, "But they shall serve the Lord their God and David their king, whom I will raise up for them." The wording here implies the raising up of a future Davidic king, leaving room for the possibility that it is not the historical King David. (Note: Jeremiah proves a future descendant or figure who is not the historical King David; Jeremiah was written well after the literal King David's reign ).

Isaiah 11:1-5 (Tanakh): This messianic prophecy describes the characteristics of the Messiah, emphasizing justice and righteousness. It states, "And there shall come forth a shoot from the stump of Jesse, and a branch from his roots shall bear fruit." Jesse is the father of David. The passage goes on to describe the Messiah in terms that extend beyond what was fulfilled in King David's reign. (Note: Isaiah proves a future descendant or figure who is not the historical King David; Isaiah was also written well after the literal King David's reign ).

Zechariah 6:12-13 (Tanakh): This verse mentions a future figure called the Branch who will build the temple. It says, "Thus says the Lord of hosts, 'Behold, the man whose name is the Branch: for he shall branch out from his place, and he shall build the temple of the Lord.'" (Note: the emphasis on building the temple points to a messianic figure distinct from King David. Again Zechariah is written well after the literal King David referring to a future Messiah)

The scriptural references prove that a future Davidic king will arise, they also prove a messianic figure with qualities and actions that go beyond what King David accomplished during his reign. King David is not the Messiah according to the scriptures in the Tanakh. As shown above the scriptures disagree with you again.

Take Care.

 

[3rdAngel]

3rdAngel said: You are totally wrong here. I suggest you read the complete Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek to English history and etymology (Jesus name - Wikipedia) which is in disagreement with you here. The bible is written in Hebrew and Greek not latin. Jesus is Lord (John 20:28) according to the scriptures and the Greek form Ἰησοῦς translated Jesus (G2424) means "Jehovah is salvation" This name Jesus from the scripture in Matthew 1:21 is also in agreement with the Greek word definition that has the Angel telling Mary what to name her baby and why here; "And she shall bring forth a son, and you shall call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins." This is kind of all disagreeing with you by the way if you did not notice.

Your response here..

You kind of miss the teaching of Yeshua, which states if you want to confirm something, it requires two witnesses (John 8:17). Matthew 1 does not even confirm itself, and leaves gaps in the genealogy, and certainly does not coincide with the genealogy of Luke. Matthew 1:21 certainly does not match Matthew 1:23, and the actual Scripture of Isaiah 7:14. As for the "message"/testimony of Yeshua, that would have been in Aramaic. And there never was some "holy name" "Jesus" in the 1st century. When the "false prophets" and their followers (bad fruit) of Mt 7:15 called on "Your name" to "perform many miracles", that name up until the 17th century was not "Jesus", because the name "Jesus" did not exist. And those who called "Lord, Lord" I will say, "I never knew you" (Mt 7:23), "you who practice lawlessness" (follow the gospel of grace).

Actually it was not me that missed anything as shown and proven in the post you are quoting from that shows proves from etymology of the name of Jesus what you posted about the name of Jesus is not true. All you did was ignore what was written to you and shared in the link provided as a help for you.

 

[3rdAngel]

'Yahweh is salvation',

Just curious.. where did you get the interpretation for your claim "Yahweh is salvation" I did not find that in your link? The literal translation of "Jesus" into English though is “Yahweh (Jehovah) is Salvation.” Are you mixing this up?

 

[2ndpillar]

Just curious.. where did you get the interpretation for your claim "Yahweh is salvation" I did not find that in your link? The literal translation of "Jesus" into English though is “Yahweh (Jehovah) is Salvation.” Are you mixing this up?

Are you mixing up the carefully crafted Jehovah witness bible to what is actually written?

 

[2ndpillar]

Ezekiel 37:24-25 (Tanakh): This passage speaks of a future Davidic king, but it also implies that this figure will be different from the historical David. It states, "My servant David shall be king over them, and they shall all have one shepherd. They shall walk in My rules and be careful to obey My statutes. They shall dwell in the land that I gave to My servant Jacob, where your fathers lived. They and their children and their children's children shall dwell there forever, and David My servant shall be their prince forever." (Note: This distinction between "David My servant" and the new ruler proves a future descendant or figure who is not the historical King David; Ezekiel was written well after the literal King David's reign and did not last forever).

Ezekiel 36 & 37 is with respect to the LORD "gathering out" Ephraim (Israel) from the "nations"/Gentiles, and combining Ephraim/Joseph (the lost 10 northern tribes) with Judah, the Jews, on the land given to Jacob, and they will all be given a new heart and spirit and keep "My statutes" with "David my prince" "forever". Judah has just taken possession of part of the land of Jacob, and according to Obadiah, will soon take all the rest and more, and the "Ephraim"/Israel will be joined with Judah (Jews) to become one Israel. We are only in the first part of the prophecy, and that nations are just now forming up against Jerusalem (Zechariah 14), and Har-Magedon (Rev 16) is still in the wings. "David" has not yet been made king, nor has Ephraim been reunited with Judah/Jews. In the end, the LORD will make Israel his sanctuary "forever" (Ezekiel 37:28). Was John the Baptist Elijah, or not?

 

[3rdAngel]

Are you mixing up the carefully crafted Jehovah witness bible to what is actually written?

Sorry I did not quote you the Jehovah's witness bible

 

[3rdAngel]

Ezekiel 36 & 37 is with respect to the LORD "gathering out" Ephraim (Israel) from the "nations"/Gentiles, and combining Ephraim/Joseph (the lost 10 northern tribes) with Judah, the Jews, on the land given to Jacob, and they will all be given a new heart and spirit and keep "My statutes" with "David my prince" "forever". Judah has just taken possession of part of the land of Jacob, and according to Obadiah, will soon take all the rest and more, and the "Ephraim"/Israel will be joined with Judah (Jews) to become one Israel. We are only in the first part of the prophecy, and that nations are just now forming up against Jerusalem (Zechariah 14), and Har-Magedon (Rev 16) is still in the wings. "David" has not yet been made king, nor has Ephraim been reunited with Judah/Jews. In the end, the LORD will make Israel his sanctuary "forever" (Ezekiel 37:28). Was John the Baptist Elijah, or not?

You are ignoring what the complete post and scriptures are saying to you again in post # 1233 linked. King David is not Gods promised Messiah which was to come after him.

 

[IndigoChild5559]

'Yahweh is salvation', Yeshua, is the name used in the first century by the common people.

And the name of the man in the Bible that I'm talking about is Yehoshua, not Yeshua.