Actually all the verses I’ve seen lead me to the same idea. There were over 150 of them in all, so I wouldn’t refer to them as a “few”.
It’s not at all surprising to me, because Jesus is God and man. It should be surprising to you, because Jesus is only a man.
Let’s go back to Num 23:19 and exegete this properly.
1. God is not a man, that he should lie
2. Neither the son of man, that he should repent.
This verse tells us that men sin and need to repent. So if scripture is telling you that all men need to sin and repent it should certainly surprising to learn of a man who does neither.
This does not mean Num 23:19 is lying, nor does it give us license to declare some men don't sin in direct contrast to scripture that tells us all men sin. Men sin, and Num 23:19 is correct. So we need something more than man that he should not lie, and something more than man that he should not have to repent in order to end up with an unblemished lamb.
You are
presupposing that Num 23:19 doesn't apply to
all men, that there are certain exceptions, when there are none.Quite simply, if Jesus was just man then any verse that applies to you and me would also apply to him. God does not show favoritism (Romans 2:11) so there is not one set of scripture for us and another set of scripture for someone else. Scripture applies equally to everyone, no matter the man.
With that in mind, lets look at some more:
9 What then? Are we Jews any better off? No, not at all. For we have already charged that all, both Jews and Greeks, are under sin, 10 as it is written:
None is righteous, no, not one;
11 no one understands;
no one seeks for God.
12 All have turned aside; together they have become worthless;
no one does good,
not even one.” Romans 3
Wasn’t Jesus a Jew? So how does Paul, writing under the Spirit, tells us that there is NO Jew, not even one, who is righteous, and that no one does good, not even one???
Perhaps Paul was mistaken? Or should we side with the skeptics, and decide Paul simply had no idea who or what he was talking about?
Therefore no one will be declared righteous in God’s sight by the works of the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of our sin. Romans 3:20
Didn’t Christ obey the Law? Isn’t Christ righteous? Does “
no one” actually mean “
no one” to you or does it mean something else?
All men sin, so being a man, even an
extraordinary man, does not qualify you to be a lamb without blemish:
"When they sin against You (for there is no man who does not sin) and You are angry with them and deliver them to an enemy, so that they take them away captive to the land of the enemy, far off or near (1 King 8:46)
And yes, Jesus was a man. No one here is arguing that point so pointing this out when we already agree is pointless.
But he had to be more than man to not sin.
Look, I think you would agree that Adam was
extraordinary when it comes to men.
Yet he still sinned. Creating a 2nd Adam but expecting different results would be the very definition of insanity. Remember, God created Eve too. She sinned, and Adam followed suit!
He called himself God when he said before a Jewish audience that before Abraham was born, I am!
@Spartan pointed that out and made it abundantly clear, so what is your response?
Who do you say “I AM” is?
@blü 2 essentially argues that "I am" is an incomplete sentence because he didn't finish it off with "God". Do you agree? Perhaps the Jews acted hastily, picking up stones before they gave Jesus a chance to finish his sentence? What of Moses? Should the Jews have been a little more inquisitive when they heard "I AM" sent him? Perhaps Moses wandered off before God could complete His sentence?
This sentence you gave is a knot. Did you mean to say something else?
Since God is giving glory to Jesus, then whose glory is God giving? Some angel's? All praise and glory belong to God does it not?
Glory belongs to God, whose power is at work in us. Ephesian 3:20
That’s pretty clear… “Glory belongs to God”. Not some glory, not most glory, just plain glory…and it belongs to God. We do not give glory to another because He does not share the glory with anyone. If he did we could have idols and worship God through that idol. That didn't work prior to Jesus being born, and it certainly wouldn't work after his ascension.
Now let's read another verse:
All honor and glory to God forever and ever! He is the eternal King, the unseen one who never dies; he alone is God. Amen
Before we go on, we need to answer a question. How much glory is ALL? Is it some glory or all glory? Do you have an answer? Good! Hold on to it. Remember He
alone is God and it ALL belongs to him.
Now read one more, and this will end if for the "glory" series:
And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self
with t
he glory which I had with thee before the world was. John 17:5
How on earth or heaven could Jesus have HIS OWN GLORY when it ALL belongs to God? This is not glory Jesus "earned while on earth", it's glory he already had!
There is ONLY one answer
@rrobs: JESUS IS GOD.
When you point out these verses to Unitarians, suddenly all doesn't really mean "all". What do you say?
If Jesus is just man, and he states that looking upon him is the same as looking upon God, then you have an idol. The Jews tried that before with they attempted to worship God through the calf, remember? Pharoahs have tried it, Caesars have tried it,
Jesus did not.
There is
no one "like" God (Isaiah 46:9) so there is no one who can say that when you look at them you’re looking at God. That includes any man or any calf. The only way Jesus gets a pass on saying something like this is if he’s not only man but also God. Anything or anyone less than God is an idol.
Correct. He's also a jealous God and doesn't want us worshiping any McGod's. Also I think He would take a very dim view of anyone claiming to be "I am!".
You arrive at the end and works your way back rrobs. I need you to start at the beginning. Why is Jesus making all these fantastic claims BEFORE he's CRUCIFIED rather than AFTER?
So Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I tell you, unless you eat the flesh and drink the blood of the Son of Man, you have no life in you.
Before Abraham was born, I am!
Truly, truly, I tell you, whatever you ask the Father in My name, He will give you.
There is a lot of misunderstanding about the Trinity and this is one of them. The doctrine does NOT state that God and Jesus are “equal in all ways”. It simply isn’t in the doctrine.
Jesus as man is subordinate to the Father. Jesus as God is not subordinate to anyone.
How many times and how many examples have we given on this thread that spell out clear distinctions within the Trinity? Any reading of the doctrine will tell you the same.
There are
many distinctions between man and God. For instance, God doesn’t lie but man does. God doesn’t need to repent, but man does. Number 23:19 makes this clear, so if Jesus is just man, he lies and needs to repent no matter how extraordinary he or other people think he is. We do not have two sets of scriptures, one for Jesus the man, and another for "all other" men. Remember "no one" actually means "no one" (Romans 3:20). I'm not sure how Unitarians can twist these verses around to reverse engineer a person that scripture explicitly states couldn't possibly be there.
No twist, just simple exegesis. We look upon scripture as a whole, not isolated into separate silos ready to be fired off in the form of a proof text. I’d like to see Unitarians be a bit more critical with their exegesis. This would require diligent analysis and less presumptive reasoning.
But here is another question for you, the same one I posed to Blu:
Who do you say Jesus was prior to his birth? Was he in the loins of Joseph, or in heaven? If heaven, was he a man, an angel, another God, or some kind of spirit "creature"?