Who IS "The Only TRUE God"- as Jesus put it?

[icebuddy]

I hate it when people are lying and are trying to be dishonest while using there own scripture you should be ashamed

Remember that you are the one telling me and others here that Thomas saying, "MY Lord and My God" is slang for "Oh my God" i have been stupid for my unbelief... If you can get any Greek scholar to back you up I would be interested in seeing.

John 20:27 And he replied with 'O my God' in the sense of him not knowing that Jesus(p) was actually alive and that he could be this stupid since he believed that Jesus(p) was a spirit and had died according rumours. According to Jesus(p)'s owns words when you die once you stay dead therefore Jesus(p) didn't die and Thomas said that because he forgot.

Never do any other bible passages support this nor do any Church Fathers support this. No Greek Scholar would support this either. You see we are looking at a Jewish tradition that the word GOD and his name are so sacrid that they wont even say it nor write it on paper. Some people today write G*D and not God even in these fourms showing this to be true. Now you have come up with this Idea that todays slang, "Oh My God" is to be input into Thomas mouth when He says "My Lord and My God"... Then to make things worse, Jesus blesses him and all those who believe as he just did in that moment of saying "My Lord and My God" with no rebuke.

You would be better off finding another solution to your understanding of Thomas saying "My Lord and My God" directly to Jesus.

 

[Shermana]

Easy solution: John 20:28 is an add on just like John 21. (See historical-jesus.info for Bernard Muller's "reconstructed" compilation of the Original Gospel of John)

Now if you disagree with this, answer a simple question:

Where did Jesus first meet the Disciples after his rising?

The mountains of Galilee OR a locked room in Jerusalem? They can't be shocked twice about it you know.

 

[F0uad]

Remember that you are the one telling me and others here that Thomas saying, "MY Lord and My God" is slang for "Oh my God" i have been stupid for my unbelief... If you can get any Greek scholar to back you up I would be interested in seeing.

To bad you didn't fully read what i have said.

Never do any other bible passages support this nor do any Church Fathers support this. No Greek Scholar would support this either. You see we are looking at a Jewish tradition that the word GOD and his name are so sacrid that they wont even say it nor write it on paper. Some people today write G*D and not God even in these fourms showing this to be true. Now you have come up with this Idea that todays slang, "Oh My God" is to be input into Thomas mouth when He says "My Lord and My God"... Then to make things worse, Jesus blesses him and all those who believe as he just did in that moment of saying "My Lord and My God" with no rebuke.

So your only argument is that a Greek Scholar never said this before therefore its not true? Why didn't you read fully of what i have said and reconstruct it yourself if i am so wrong. Like i said Thomas was the only one who was not present at the moment so he didn't know that Jesus(p) was alive, back then people believed that Spirits/Death people walked among the living.

You would be better off finding another solution to your understanding of Thomas saying "My Lord and My God" directly to Jesus.

Why because you have no argument to really address the mistake i made according to you? Just shoving something away is weak you have to engage it.

 

[CMike]

As the real G-d said there is only one G-D.

 

[URAVIP2ME]

Easy solution: John 20:28 is an add on just like John 21. (See historical-jesus.info for Bernard Muller's "reconstructed" compilation of the Original Gospel of John)
Now if you disagree with this, answer a simple question:
Where did Jesus first meet the Disciples after his rising?
The mountains of Galilee OR a locked room in Jerusalem? They can't be shocked twice about it you know.

Very good point ^above^.

Before verse 28 earlier at John [20 v 17 B] Jesus already stated that he [Jesus] was going to ascend to his God. Jesus ascended to his God of Rev. 3 v 12.

 

[icebuddy]

, answer a simple question:

Where did Jesus first meet the Disciples after his rising?

The mountains of Galilee OR a locked room in Jerusalem? They can't be shocked twice about it you know.

More Detailed Answer that I agree with

Where did Jesus first appear to the eleven disciples after His resurrection? Was it on a mountain top in Galilee (Matthew 28:16), or was it in a room in Jerusalem (Mark 16:14; Luke 24:33-37; John 20:19)? Is there a contradiction?

[SIZE=-1]RESPONSE:
It is true that Jesus had commanded His disciples to meet Him at an appointed place in Galilee. When Jesus met the women who had come to the tomb to anoint Him, He asked that they tell the apostles to meet where He had formerly agreed with them (Matthew 28:10). However, when the women told the disciples, they did not believe (Mark 16:10-11). Besides appearing to the women, He appeared to two others, who likewise came and bore witness of His resurrection to the apostles, but still they did not believe (Mark 16:12-13; Luke 24:13-35).

In Luke's account, we are told that Jesus appeared to the apostles while these other men were still speaking (Luke 24:36). This would be the same appearance which is recorded in Mark 16:14 and John 20:19. John specifically tells us that it was the first day of the week (ie. the day upon which Jesus had risen from the dead).

Though it was Jesus' plan to meet with His disciples in Galilee immediately after His resurrection, their unbelief required that He first appear to them in Jerusalem. The wording of Matthew 28:16-17 certainly leaves room for the Lord's appearance to the eleven in Jerusalem prior to being in Galilee.
[/SIZE] ​

 

[Shermana]

The problem with this response, and I'd like to see the source you get this from, is that some were doubting in Galilee.

Why would they be doubting AFTER they had seen him and felt the wounds in Jerusalem?

Why would they be doubting again? The only answer to this would be that you'd have to say they didn't really believe him at Jerusalem after he appeared through the locked doors and showed them his wounds, right?

Well I say that's absolutely silly.

 

[icebuddy]

To bad you didn't fully read what i have said.

I did read it, Am i not understanding you correctly? What I have read is not an answer I would even consider. However, there are other ways around calling Jesus God that sound far more intelligent if you must deny him that.

So your only argument is that a Greek Scholar never said this before therefore its not true?

there is always someone, I just wanted to see if you had one...

Why didn't you read fully of what i have said and reconstruct it yourself if i am so wrong. Like i said Thomas was the only one who was not present at the moment so he didn't know that Jesus was alive, back then people believed that Spirits/Death people walked among the living.

O MY God is not an expression of Greeks. My Lord and My God is not even close and has never been used in the history of any Greek writing as an expression or slang of being suprised. The fact that Jesus says, "Because you have believed, you are blessed", make us look to the passage, "My Lord and My God" to see exactly what Thomas believed in that moment. Just as the Roman gaurd said, Surely that was the son of God, but not until he had evidence. Thomas got his evidence and realized Jesus was Lord and God.

Why because you have no argument to really address the mistake i made according to you? Just shoving something away is weak you have to engage it.

I dont think I understand you 100%, but i disagree with "My Lord and My God" is slang for "Oh My God im suprised"...

 

[URAVIP2ME]

If doubting Thomas believed Jesus was God then he was contradicting what Jesus said at John 20 v 17 where Jesus explained that he [Jesus] would be ascending to his God.

After Jesus ascended to heaven he appeared before the person of God. -Hebrews 9 v 24.
After Jesus was in heaven Jesus still refers to himself as the Son of God.- Rev. 2 v 18.
After Jesus was in heaven Jesus still thinks he has a God over him.- Rev. 3 v 12.

 

[F0uad]

If doubting Thomas believed Jesus was God then he was contradicting what Jesus said at John 20 v 17 where Jesus explained that he [Jesus] would be ascending to his God.

After Jesus ascended to heaven he appeared before the person of God. -Hebrews 9 v 24.
After Jesus was in heaven Jesus still refers to himself as the Son of God.- Rev. 2 v 18.
After Jesus was in heaven Jesus still thinks he has a God over him.- Rev. 3 v 12.

Just a quick question who wrote Hebrews?

 

[F0uad]

If doubting Thomas believed Jesus was God then he was contradicting what Jesus said at John 20 v 17 where Jesus explained that he [Jesus] would be ascending to his God.

After Jesus ascended to heaven he appeared before the person of God. -Hebrews 9 v 24.
After Jesus was in heaven Jesus still refers to himself as the Son of God.- Rev. 2 v 18.
After Jesus was in heaven Jesus still thinks he has a God over him.- Rev. 3 v 12.

The highlighted word will be a contradiction of what you have said before.

Just a quick question who wrote Hebrews?

 

[URAVIP2ME]

'his' God as in meaning John [20 v 17] where Jesus says he has a God because Jesus refers to the God of heaven as 'my God' [his God]. Both pronouns 'my and his' stand for Jesus.

As to who wrote Hebrews [or the letter to the Hebrew congregation which would be the Hebrew Christians in Judea]

According to Luke at Acts [9 v 15] Paul [formerly Saul] was a chosen vessel.
Notice chosen not only to the Gentiles, but chosen vessel to the children or sons of Israel.

Hebrews is presented from a Jewish standpoint designed to appeal to those converted Jews acquainted with the Jewish system at that time frame.
Paul, to bear Jesus' name, according to verse 15 being a chosen vessel to those Hebrews was chosen then to be the author of the book of Hebrews.

 

[F0uad]

'his' God as in meaning John [20 v 17] where Jesus says he has a God because Jesus refers to the God of heaven as 'my God' [his God]. Both pronouns 'my and his' stand for Jesus.

As to who wrote Hebrews [or the letter to the Hebrew congregation which would be the Hebrew Christians in Judea]

According to Luke at Acts [9 v 15] Paul [formerly Saul] was a chosen vessel.
Notice chosen not only to the Gentiles, but chosen vessel to the children or sons of Israel.

Hebrews is presented from a Jewish standpoint designed to appeal to those converted Jews acquainted with the Jewish system at that time frame.
Paul, to bear Jesus' name, according to verse 15 being a chosen vessel to those Hebrews was chosen then to be the author of the book of Hebrews.

The use of tabernacle terminology in Hebrews has been used to date the epistle before the destruction of the temple, the idea being that knowing about the destruction of both Jerusalem and the temple would have influenced the development of his overall argument to include such evidence. Therefore, the most probable date for its composition is the second half of the year 63 or the beginning of 64, according to the Catholic Encyclopaedia so how could it ever be Paul in the first place? Many scholars now believe that the author was one of Paul's pupils or associates, citing stylistic differences between Hebrews and the other Pauline epistles yet they don't know who it is.

There is no honest Historian or scholar who agrees that Hebrews is written by Paul all they can answer is: Unknown if differs so much from Paul's other-works that its impossible that he wrote it without taking the date in mind.

 

[abidehandy]

Gen. 1:1 "In the beginning God ( Elohim)(which I believe is plural) created... If Elohim is plural, does that mean there is One God or 3 in one? (God the Father, God the Son, God the Holy Spirit?)
Then Gen. 1:26.." let us (plural) make man in our (plural) image, in our (plural) likeness...

So, how do we carry this discussion according to the above reference?

Is God one in three or three in one? Achad and Yashid?

Gen. 2:24"....and they will become one (Achad: one made up of parts) flesh"

 

[roberto]

Why would G_d go to the temple as a young child to learn ?

 

[icebuddy]

Why would they be doubting AFTER they had seen him and felt the wounds in Jerusalem?

We all might think we have the answer, but why did Peter Deny Jesus 3 times although He knew he was the christ? I bet we would like to think we would never deny Jesus, and Peter was right there watching everything with his own eyes...

Why would they be doubting again? The only answer to this would be that you'd have to say they didn't really believe him at Jerusalem after he appeared through the locked doors and showed them his wounds, right?
[/QUOTE
i dont claim to know why the Believers believed or didnt believe certain things. i do know that through History the Jews always had a nack for turning away from God right after he did miricles. Psalms 78:32-35

Well I say that's absolutely silly

Do you believe Peter doubting Jesus 3 times was silly too? Jesus did miricles right infront of people and they still had unbelief. There are passages that Jesus was amazed of the unbelieve people had and that even some of the people prayed to the Father to help with their unbelief...

In Love
Tom

 

[icebuddy]

Why would G_d go to the temple as a young child to learn ?

Jesus was both Man and God in nature. Although he was God, he emptied himself to become a man. As a man, he learned to eat, walk, talk, and basicaly everything you and I had to learn as a man. Yet he created everything even the abilities he had to learn as a man. 1tim 3:16

Jesus is truely the best mediator for us, for he knows what it is to be Man and God.

Rev 22:16 I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, [and] the bright and morning star.

 

[ForeverFaithful]

Jesus once denied being God. "Why do you call me good? There is no one good except God alone". (Mark. 10:18, Luke 18:19)

Therefore Jesus is not God, but man. I can pretty much guarantee that Jesus didn't think of himself as God. I don't think it was ever part of the prophecy that the Messiah would be God Himself.

Please excuse the bluntness of this, but since when are Dhamrics able to read the Bible better than the people who assembled it?

You realize Jesus called himself good as in being the GOOD Shepard right?

-Ignore this post, didn't realize there was 90 pages of this

 

[icebuddy]

So, how do we carry this discussion according to the above reference?
Is God one in three or three in one? Achad and Yashid?
Gen. 2:24"....and they will become one (Achad: one made up of parts) flesh"

Many debates have arose over the years of this very thought. How can 1God be 3Persons. The problem we all have is that we dont really know what "God" is so we all use our own understanding of the word God. What if the definition of God was "7 Spirits", would we still be able to say we have One God although God means "7 Spirits"? (Just using 7 and Spirits to show basic thoughts)

What if God is Father, Son, and Holy Spirit? Could we still say we have One God? Yes

In Love,
Tom

 

[ForeverFaithful]

Why would G_d go to the temple as a young child to learn ?

Read again He went to teach