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Er, a non-Jewish woman who converts is considered just as Jewish as a born Jewish woman. Being Jewish is more than just genetics.
And you make it sound like genetic Jews don't really exist anymore, which is just ridiculous. I guess Arabs don't really exist anymore, either.
You obviously don't understand what Jewishness is.By that logic, any Christian, their religion having originated in Palestine, has just as much right to Israel as Jews or Muslims
So you claim that modern Palestinian bloodline from 100 years ago when Palestine was theirs are just as weak as Israeli Jews bloodline related to when they last occupied Palestine 2000 years ago, and that makes sense to you?? I can see this argument is going nowhere!!
No I understand what Jewishness is, what I don't understand is how Jewishness gives one the right to steal land from native Palestinians in Israel.
No, you don't, since you apparently think it's all about genetics.No I understand what Jewishness is,
They're not "stealing" anything. If the indigenous people of the Americas or the indigenous Australians decided that they wanted their land back, would that be "stealing"? Nope. The Palestinians are either descended from Arab invaders or Jews and Christians who converted to Islam and became Arabized.what I don't understand is how Jewishness gives one the right to steal land from native Palestinians in Israel.
Yes, and what some keep forgetting is that the M.E. in general has had major movements of populations throughout most of its human history because of several factors: its crossroads locality, wars, seeking of better land, droughts, etc. What we commonly call "Arabs" today in that region are really not Arabs in the original meaning of the term, which was actually a relatively small tribe in the southern part of the Arabian Peninsula. In the late 1800's/early 1900's, the French referred to the "Palestinians" as "Sud-Syrians" (South Syrians) since most were of Assyrian/Syrian stock.How does bloodlines give anyone the right to any land? You should of asked this before talking about bloodlines. Find me the gene for land ownership. I will wait.
This is the point!Yes, and what some keep forgetting is that the M.E. in general has had major movements of population....
For us to argue over the history of the region is rather silly since we do live in the here and now.
Maybe its because some Jews, the majority it seems in Israel, refuse to try to get along with their neighbors.
I am ashamed of both side quite frankly, why can't they just share the land like decent people, instead of hating each others guts, and all these people call themselves people of God, Ha.
that is, indeed, your interpretation. The text actually says that the issue wasn't jealousy, and that the Arabs do have an important inheritance and are in no way illegitimate, just not the same one as given through Isaac.Yes indeed, but some people are more equal than others, heh heh. Convenient, no?
My take, and I may be totally off, is that the trouble began when Abraham wanted a son to pass on his great wealth to. His wife, Sarah, was infertile, but God gave Abraham the right to sire a child with their house servant, Hagar, who was Egyptian. That son, Ishmael, fathered the Arab nation, but Hagar and Ishmael were banished by Sarah out of jealousy. And so, my thinking goes, the Arab people have no right to Abraham's inheritance because they are illegitimate. Something like that.
that is, indeed, your interpretation. The text actually says that the issue wasn't jealousy, and that the Arabs do have an important inheritance and are in no way illegitimate, just not the same one as given through Isaac.
Yes, and what some keep forgetting is that the M.E. in general has had major movements of populations throughout most of its human history because of several factors: its crossroads locality, wars, seeking of better land, droughts, etc. What we commonly call "Arabs" today in that region are really not Arabs in the original meaning of the term, which was actually a relatively small tribe in the southern part of the Arabian Peninsula. In the late 1800's/early 1900's, the French referred to the "Palestinians" as "Sud-Syrians" (South Syrians) since most were of Assyrian/Syrian stock.
For us to argue over the history of the region is rather silly since we do live in the here and now.
No, not illegitimate in the least, unless you know of some written codes from back then that detail marriage laws.Hagar was not Abrahams's lawful wife. Doesn't that make any offspring between them illegitimate?
And it appears from the text that the decision to father a child via Hagar was not God's decision, but Sarah's:
Genesis 16 (NIV)
Hagar and Ishmael
16 Now Sarai, Abram’s wife, had borne him no children. But she had an Egyptian slave named Hagar; 2 so she said to Abram, “The Lord has kept me from having children. Go, sleep with my slave; perhaps I can build a family through her.”
Yes, and actually it is the language whereas Mohammed's words in the Qu'ran were written in Arabic, so as Islam spread, the name for the earliest adherents were called "Arabs". Because of difficulties in going from one translation to another, the Qu'ran ideally should always be read in Arabic.The identification of Arab can also cover the language used by a people. It is another form of classification just like citizenship, ethnicity, "race", culture, etc. Many call people in North African Arab but how many are actually Arab? We know there were a number of populations which varied pre-Islam which were not Arab. The only explanations are a migration pattern, which undermines any claims if Palestinians are Arab by ancestry rather than language due to "mixed bloodlines". The other is I point out above which is assimilation and changes due to the cultural environment surrounding them.
Yes, and actually it is the language whereas Mohammed's words in the Qu'ran were written in Arabic, so as Islam spread, the name for the earliest adherents were called "Arabs". Because of difficulties in going from one translation to another, the Qu'ran ideally should always be read in Arabic.
Almost without a doubt, what has become known as "Arabs" is only likely consists of a small minority of members that came from the original Arab population.
Revisionist history. 5/6 of "Palestine" went to form Jordan and what we now call the WB and GS. Arabs that lived in Israel could stay as long as they weren't involved in attempts to drive them out, which is why there are roughly 1 & 1/2 million Palestinians living in Israel, and they consider themselves to be "Israelis".Arabs lived in Palestine 100 years ago and made up 95% of the population, Jews made less than 5%. How can you deny the significance of that. There was a Jewish invasion and around 1948 an ethnic cleansing of about 1 million arabs forced to leave the country and this is the kind of BS you are defending.
It is ideally to be read in Arabic, and I did not make that up. Nor did I say it had to be read in Arabic. I had both an English and Arabic copy, the former of which I donated to a school library near me, so obviously in can be read in any language.No need to read it always in Arabic. This idea is pure nonsense as there have been experts that have translated these texts, and have done so for centuries, that continue to provide translations. Hence why linguistics is a field, hence lexicons. Beside a major error in this argument is the fact that everyone still uses their own language as a reference point when using a second language. This is due to basic development of language and education of said language.
For example no one knows ancient Egyptian, it is a dead language completely. We only have transliterations based on languages we do know. By your argument people should only read hieroglyphs in ancient Egyptian thus no one can know anything about anything we find due to a complete lack of native speakers. The same applies to ancient Hebrew. It become a dead language only used in texts yet people have no issues with it since there are other languages used as bridge between the language then and the language now.