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Why do many Christians claim the Spirit of God is a Holy ‘Ghost’?

Kenny

Face to face with my Father
Premium Member
Thank you for your reply
To me the One who is the person is: God ( God sends..... - Psalm 104:30 )
The other is the 'power' that God's spirit has and He uses that 'power' to accomplish His purpose - Isaiah 40:26
God's spirit is a genderless "it" even if in Greek a neuter can be used in the masculine sense - Numbers 11:17,25 (it)
Yes… that is the position that some people have. In my interaction with the Holy Spirit, I find Him to be more than just “a power” as stated in the NT.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Yes… that is the position that some people have. In my interaction with the Holy Spirit, I find Him to be more than just “a power” as stated in the NT.
Yes, I realize in the NT at Romans 8:16, 26 that the KJV word ' itself ' was later changed to himself by later translators
In Greek it is not wrong to use the masculine for an impersonal ' it ' or ' itself ' but that does Not make the 'it' or 'itself' a person
isn't God's spirit something He possesses according to Isaiah 40:13 ______________
 

Kenny

Face to face with my Father
Premium Member
Yes, I realize in the NT at Romans 8:16, 26 that the KJV word ' itself ' was later changed to himself by later translators
In Greek it is not wrong to use the masculine for an impersonal ' it ' or ' itself ' but that does Not make the 'it' or 'itself' a person
isn't God's spirit something He possesses according to Isaiah 40:13 ______________
Again… nothing you have posted here addressed the fact that the person of the Holy Spirit has insight (1 Corinthians 2:10-11). He knows things, which requires an intellect (Romans 8:27). He has a will (1 Corinthians 12:11). He convicts of sin (John 16:8). He performs miracles (Acts 8:39). He guides (John 16:13). He intercedes between persons (Romans 8:26). He is to be obeyed (Acts 10:19-20). He can be lied to (Acts 5:3), resisted (Acts 7:51), grieved (Ephesians 4:30), blasphemed (Matthew 12:31), even insulted (Hebrews 10 John :29). He relates to the apostles (Acts 15:28) and to each member of the Trinity (John 16:14; Matthew 28:19; 2 Corinthians 13:14).

The Holy Spirit is a person. God, if you will, for God is a Spirit. John 4:24
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
.........................................................................................................
The Holy Spirit is a person. God, if you will, for God is a Spirit. John 4:24
Yes, both God and angels are spirit persons, so yes, God is a Spirit Person
But please notice Psalm 104:30 because the Spirit Person God sends forth His spirit (Spirit and spirit )
God's spirit is Not a person because a person is Not an "it" as God's spirit is an "it" - Numbers 11:17,25
Even our spirit is an "it" - Ecclesiastes 12:7 B
So, I find God IS a Spirit Person and also God has a spirit "it" that He uses
Yes, God is a Spirit aka Person, and to be worshipped with 'spirit' ( active zeal ) and truth ( religious truth ) - Jon 4:23-24
As with school spirit is Not a person but a pep rally designed to create zealous lively school spirit
 

Oeste

Well-Known Member
God's spirit is Not a person because a person is Not an "it" as God's spirit is an "it" - Numbers 11:17,25
You have not fully explained why you believe a person cannot be an it.

Of course a person can be an "it".

Let's make "it" simple:

Who was it?​
It wasn't me.​
Then who was it?​
It was you.​
Don't blame it on me when we all know it was you that did it.
I guess we'll never know who it was then.​
Maybe it was God then.​

As with school spirit is Not a person but a pep rally designed to create zealous lively school spirit

A school is simply a collection or group, so when you say "school spirit" you are simply referring to the spirits of those who comprise the school.

In other words, "school" refers to individual persons as a collective group, and "school spirit" refers to each individual spirit in the school as a collective whole.

So yes, "it" can refer to a person just as easily as "it" can refer to anything else.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
Yes, I realize in the NT at Romans 8:16, 26 that the KJV word ' itself ' was later changed to himself by later translators
In Greek it is not wrong to use the masculine for an impersonal ' it ' or ' itself ' but that does Not make the 'it' or 'itself' a person
isn't God's spirit something He possesses according to Isaiah 40:13 ______________
Isa. 40:13 Who has measured the Spirit of the LORD,
or what man shows him his counsel?

I believe I do not see anything about possession. I believe the fact that God is Spirit does not rule out the idea that it is a factor in his personality as other factors are. I believe this verse also implies omnipresence.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Isa. 40:13 Who has measured the Spirit of the LORD,
or what man shows him his counsel?
I believe I do not see anything about possession. I believe the fact that God is Spirit does not rule out the idea that it is a factor in his personality as other factors are. ...................................................................
True that God is a Spirit Person, but 'God's spirit' is something He uses according to Psalm 104:30
Spirit Person God sends forth His spirit. God's spirit is good - Psalm 143:10
When God sends forth His spirit His power is connected to it - Jeremiah 32:17
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
The word for spirit, ruach, is actually feminine. There is no pronoun for "it" in Biblical Hebrew.
Could you then please explain why the Hebrew TANACH uses the pronoun "it" at Numbers 11:17,25 for God's spirit

No problem to me about feminine or masculine in gender use in some languages
Even in English a car or a ship is sometimes in the feminine as 'she' although cars and boats are still neuter "its"
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
Could you then please explain why the Hebrew TANACH uses the pronoun "it" at Numbers 11:17,25 for God's spirit
"אֹתוֹ" (oto) means him or her, depending on the noun it is referring to. Since Ruach is feminine, the pronoun in Hebrew is her, not it. However, it would be very awkward in English to refer to the Holy Spirit as her, so the translators in their efforts try make it more like how English speaking people would say it, translate it as "it." This does NOT mean that it is "it" in Hebrew. What I said stands. There is no word "it" in Hebrew.
No problem to me about feminine or masculine in gender use in some languages
Even in English a car or a ship is sometimes in the feminine as 'she' although cars and boats are still neuter "its"
Yes, a boat is an exception. Although it is perfectly acceptable to refer to a ship as "it," I often hear people refer to a ship as "her." In this case, it has nothing to do with any feminine tense in English. Rather it is a form of figurative speech called personification, aka giving a non human object or animal a personality and character of a human being.

I must go down to the seas again, to the lonely sea and the sky,
And all I ask is a tall ship and a star to steer her by.
John Masefield
 
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URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
"אֹתוֹ" (oto) means him or her, depending on the noun it is referring to. Since Ruach is feminine, the pronoun in Hebrew is her, not it. However, it would be very awkward in English to refer to the Holy Spirit as her, so the translators in their efforts try make it more like how English speaking people would say it, translate it as "it." This does NOT mean that it is "it" in Hebrew. What I said stands. There is no word "it" in Hebrew.
Yes, a boat is an exception. Although it is perfectly acceptable to refer to a ship as "it," I often hear people refer to a ship as "her." In this case, it has nothing to do with any feminine tense in English. Rather it is a form of figurative speech called personification, aka giving a non human object or animal a personality and character of a human being.
I must go down to the seas again, to the lonely sea and the sky,
And all I ask is a tall ship and a star to steer her by.
John Masefield
Yes, personification just as ' wisdom ' is personified at Proverbs 8:12,14-17
 

Kamusta43

New Member
The Dictionary definition of a ‘GHOST’ is:
  • ‘An apparition of a dead person which is believed to appear or become manifest to the living, typically as a nebulous image.’
How does this definition apply to what is called, ‘The Third Person’ of the trinity?

Take into account that a Ghost is ‘of a DEAD’ person - yet the Spirit of God is a ‘LIFE GIVING’ entity.

Is the term, Holy Ghost, just an example of malicious thinking and teaching, or is it just to be taken as ignorance in innocence thinking and preaching?
The Holy Spirit and the Holy Ghost have the same meaning. It is a reason why the bible uses these terms interchangeably. Holy Spirit in the Hebrew means the Great Breath. Spirit itself means breath. And the spirit or breath goes back to God who gave it. Holy Ghost means breath as well. When Jesus died, the Bible says he gave up the ghost. Here again there is an indication breath. So Holy Ghost means great Breath. The giver of all life.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
The Holy Spirit and the Holy Ghost have the same meaning. It is a reason why the bible uses these terms interchangeably. Holy Spirit in the Hebrew means the Great Breath. Spirit itself means breath. And the spirit or breath goes back to God who gave it. Holy Ghost means breath as well. When Jesus died, the Bible says he gave up the ghost. Here again there is an indication breath. So Holy Ghost means great Breath. The giver of all life.
God breathed the ' breath of life ' into life-less Adam - Genesis 2:7
The Bible was Not originally written in King James' English
Back in 1833 Noah Webster replaced ghost with holy spirit because God's spirit is Not an apparition as a ghost is
So, ghost and a spirit person are different from the original Bible language

God's spirit "it", is an impersonal "it" - see Numbers 11:17, 25
Just as our spirit "it" is also a genderless impersonal "it" according to Ecclesiastes 12:7 B "it"
God does Not send forth Himself but sends forth His spirit - see Psalm 104:30
An impersonal powerful force like a Power Plant grid's power is invisible but we see the results
Any thoughts about Job 27:3 ____________
 
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