There isn't any legal precedent for such an argument. That was also a slight swerve from answering my actual question. The second amendment is clear that government is a factor in the rights it gives citizens. The militias were organized to defend state governments. There is no idea that one can rebel against the government just because.
Which again, the second doesn't argue we have unrestricted rights to guns.
These premises don't make any sense, you cannot have militias without weapons and free access to them. The militias by their purpose are to defend against all threats domestic or foreign, should the need arise. They have nothing to do with the military or desires of the government, and secondly the government has no authority of whether they can form on purpose. If for some reason the government refuses to protect citizens, it gives us the right to protect ourselves.
The "State" isn't a nebulous context, it loosely means property and people whom reside in the United States, but it is possible the government acts against them. If the federal government works against the "State", the "State" can organize against it.
There is also no legal precedent against such an interpretation, and per the US Constitution any right you are not specifically denied, you have.