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Why is Islam, Christianity etc homophobic?

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Plato

Member
I think it's simply because Islam, Judaism, Christianity all arose in the Semitic cultures of the Mideast 1200BC-600'sAD and these cultures had strong cultural taboo's against homosexuality. Not all cultures have such taboo's (Greek and Roman for example) but if your culture has a taboo about it your religion that develops there is going to be against it.
It's arguable that Christianity did not condem homosexuality (the New Testement is just silent on it), but it's 'assumed' it condemns homosexuality from Judaism's Old Testement which the Christians include in their 'Bible'.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Well, what ever way you put it, if the religion were a man, he'd be homophobic.
Not at all. Especially when you have never shown that the religious texts were "homophobic" anyway. When the religions, at the center, teach to love one another, and not to judge, homophobia just doesn't fit well.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Good lord, everyone understands the question. Just bloody well answer it rather then saying not all such and such are homophobic and not all such and such believe this and that. The bible and Koran have specific passages that are homophobic and you can harp on and on about how some Christians are very LGTB friendly and blah blah blah but it's just because they are good people in spite of what their ridiculous book says.
The question simply is phrased in a ridiculous manner that really isn't logical (inanimate objects can't be homophobic), and uses a sweeping generalization that hardly fits the actual situation. More so, the question has been answered. The answer being that no, the religions are not homophobic, but certain individuals are. The reason being that they fear otherness.

Finally, the Bible (I haven't studied the Quran as much) does not have specific passages that are homophobic. In fact, there really is nothing about homosexuality in the Bible. Yes, some portray the Bible as that, but that is because they simply are not very well versed in the Bible, or simply don't understand what it says.

When we look at the NT, it never outright condemns, or even singles out homosexuality or any act that could be considered such. And when it does even mention such an act, it is within a vice list (with multiple offenses), and then states that we are all guilty of such, and that we shouldn't judge others.

You're simply relying on a bias.


The real question is how do you pick and choose what you believe in the bible? what is the vetting process?
Why is that the real question? It has nothing to do with this subject. More so, the question that should be asked in this case is what is the Bible actually saying? Is it really supporting homophobia, or is it being misrepresented? The answer is that it is being misrepresented, and I have supplied links showing that.


If you claim to get your morals from the bible, that it makes you a better person and that it is the path to salvation, how can you ignore the bits you don't agree with?
Because no one has to accept a book blindly. Why should they?


As for an earlier point about there being Atheist Homophobes. That's 100% certain but they don't use a rubbish excuse like I have a really old book that says it's wrong as a cover for the simple it's icky.
But they still use a ridiculous excuse. They both hide behind some ignorant idea that is fueled by nothing more than hatred. To try to excuse Atheist Homophobes for making up some other ridiculous idea for hating people is simply poor.
 

Ashir

Member
They are???

You'll have to point out, if you please, one definitively homophobic text in the bible.

Can't do it, 'cause it ain't there.

I made the mistake of judging the religion by one text that not all follow, come to think of it. The old testament and the Qu'ran are homophobic, however.

As if any of those are homophobic in nature.

Not at all. Especially when you have never shown that the religious texts were "homophobic" anyway. When the religions, at the center, teach to love one another, and not to judge, homophobia just doesn't fit well.

The Qu'ran is not homophobic? Really?

The question simply is phrased in a ridiculous manner that really isn't logical (inanimate objects can't be homophobic), and uses a sweeping generalization that hardly fits the actual situation. More so, the question has been answered. The answer being that no, the religions are not homophobic, but certain individuals are. The reason being that they fear otherness.

Finally, the Bible (I haven't studied the Quran as much) does not have specific passages that are homophobic. In fact, there really is nothing about homosexuality in the Bible. Yes, some portray the Bible as that, but that is because they simply are not very well versed in the Bible, or simply don't understand what it says.

When we look at the NT, it never outright condemns, or even singles out homosexuality or any act that could be considered such. And when it does even mention such an act, it is within a vice list (with multiple offenses), and then states that we are all guilty of such, and that we shouldn't judge others.

You're simply relying on a bias.

Why is that the real question? It has nothing to do with this subject. More so, the question that should be asked in this case is what is the Bible actually saying? Is it really supporting homophobia, or is it being misrepresented? The answer is that it is being misrepresented, and I have supplied links showing that.

Because no one has to accept a book blindly. Why should they?

But they still use a ridiculous excuse. They both hide behind some ignorant idea that is fueled by nothing more than hatred. To try to excuse Atheist Homophobes for making up some other ridiculous idea for hating people is simply poor.

Well, how should I put it? Why do the texts have homophobic passages? Excluding the NT.
Not sure if you were talking to me but I never excused atheist homophobes, they're all idiots regardless of their belief.
 

crocusj

Active Member
Hmmm. It is clear that the majority of Christians and Muslims here are not homophobic and that they can back up that their holy books are not homophobic either. Perhaps then it would be better to ask why Christians and Muslims and their holy books appear to be homophobic. While it is obvious that homophobia is prevalent whether religious based or not the indisputable facts are that the loudest and most powerful voices of the anti-gay marraige movements are religious bodies and clergy and they are using these books and their religious beliefs to gain the widest audience. Indeed, those who might not otherwise care a jot one way or the other about homosexuality might well be swayed by a percieved threat to their religion if that threat is proclaimed by the hiearchy of their religion quoting their holy books.
 

Ashir

Member
You realize that those texts aren't against homosexuality, don't you?

Nope, enlighten me.

Hmmm. It is clear that the majority of Christians and Muslims here are not homophobic and that they can back up that their holy books are not homophobic either. Perhaps then it would be better to ask why Christians and Muslims and their holy books appear to be homophobic. While it is obvious that homophobia is prevalent whether religious based or not the indisputable facts are that the loudest and most powerful voices of the anti-gay marraige movements are religious bodies and clergy and they are using these books and their religious beliefs to gain the widest audience. Indeed, those who might not otherwise care a jot one way or the other about homosexuality might well be swayed by a percieved threat to their religion if that threat is proclaimed by the hiearchy of their religion quoting their holy books.

not very clear to me
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
I made the mistake of judging the religion by one text that not all follow, come to think of it. The old testament and the Qu'ran are homophobic, however.
Nope. They are inanimate objects that simply can't be homophobic. And really, the OT, at most, condemns only male anal intercourse. That hardly constitutes homosexuality. So, at least with the OT, you're completely wrong.
The Qu'ran is not homophobic? Really?
Quote one verse here. Don't link to some clearly uninformed source.
Well, how should I put it? Why do the texts have homophobic passages? Excluding the NT.
Not sure if you were talking to me but I never excused atheist homophobes, they're all idiots regardless of their belief.
The NT doesn't contain homophobic passages. It only does if one wants to ignore what the passages actually say, and misinterpret them in a way to fuel hate.

The question should be why do some misinterpret the Bible to fuel their homophobic hatred? And the reason is very simple. Because they want an excuse. They need to hide behind something. Or they have been taught hate, and have never taken the time to actually research themselves.
 

Ashir

Member
I remember saying 'I realize my mistake, replace 'Bible' with OT' or something along those lines. The NT may not be but to me the OT is.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
I remember saying 'I realize my mistake, replace 'Bible' with OT' or something along those lines. The NT may not be but to me the OT is.

No it's not. As I posted before, it addresses, at most, only male anal intercourse. That is not homosexuality nor comes close to it.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
In the OT there are much more homosexual-regarding quotes not from Leviticus.

Post them here. If you can't, then there isn't. And I can assure you, you won't be able to. Because the only verse that can logically be used to condemn homosexuality is in Leviticus, and as I have stated, it only deals with male anal intercourse. There are no other examples, unless one wants to start making things up.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
I already did, or rather links to them, and I don't repeat myself.
And you were informed that that link was garbage. But fine, since you can't defend your position, I will show why those verses simply don't work. I'm only dealing with the OT here.

The first one already (Leviticus), was explained, and thus is no need to be explained again.

Ezekiel 16:49-50 (New International Version)
49 " 'Now this was the sin of your sister Sodom: She and her daughters were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and needy. 50 They were haughty and did detestable things before me. Therefore I did away with them as you have seen.
Nothing about homosexuality. It rests on the assumption that the sin of Sodom was homosexuality. Yet, if you read this verse, it actually says nothing about that, but that the sin was quite different. They were jerks.

Judges 19:22-25 (New International Version)
22 While they were enjoying themselves, some of the wicked men of the city surrounded the house. Pounding on the door, they shouted to the old man who owned the house, "Bring out the man who came to your house so we can have sex with him."
23 The owner of the house went outside and said to them, "No, my friends, don't be so vile. Since this man is my guest, don't do this disgraceful thing. 24 Look, here is my virgin daughter, and his concubine. I will bring them out to you now, and you can use them and do to them whatever you wish. But to this man, don't do such a disgraceful thing."
25 But the men would not listen to him. So the man took his concubine and sent her outside to them, and they raped her and abused her throughout the night, and at dawn they let her go.
To assume this has anything to do with homosexuality is more than ridiculous. First, we see these men having sex with a woman. That should be the first clue. Second, this verse has to do with rape. That is not what homosexuality is.

And those were the only verses dealing with the OT. You have one that states nothing about about homosexuality, but instead actually tells us that the story of Sodom had nothing to do with homosexuality (or at least that wasn't their sin). The other one was about rape, and about men raping a woman. Neither one deals with homosexuality.

So really, you provided no actual sources at all. Now that we have gotten that done, are you willing to accept that there is no mention of homosexuality in the OT?
 
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