But why wouldn't God's Spirit affect other people prior to Jesus? Maybe His Spirit was given to enhance those listening to Jesus and/or hearing/reading about him later?
IOW, I can't fathom why the Spirit would be only activated from Pentecost onward?
Just my unsure thoughts on the matter.
I'm sorry, Metis... obviously I didn't explain myself well. Indeed God's Spirit can and did affect people prior to Jesus.
Exodus 31:2 See, I have called by name Bezaleel the son of Uri, the son of Hur, of the tribe of Judah: 3 And I have filled him with the spirit of God, in wisdom, and in understanding, and in knowledge, and in all manner of workmanship, 4 To devise cunning works, to work in gold, and in silver, and in brass,
So God did indeed move on people!
And, of course, this is my understanding of which I always say, "God, enroll me in the "What I really meant 101" when I get to Heaven.
My understanding is that God moved on the soul of mankind (wisdom, intellect, capacity) but the spirit of man was still not ready to receive the fulness of the dunamis power of God. It would be like entering into the Holy of Holies without all the washing and sacrifices that were needed to be in His presence.
It would be like touching the Ark of the Covenant without blood - and man would not be able to withstand His presence.
But when Jesus resurrected and the blood was placed in the Heavenly altar, the receiving of Jesus as Lord cause us to be "born again", as Jesus said, recreated back into the fulness of the image and likeness of God and now had the capacity to be fully united with God's Spirit becoming one with Him.
There are scriptures for all of this... but that is the gist of my position baring the class of "What I really meant 101"