I understand what you mean but the One behind the Hebrew name and Jesus are not the same so it cant be.
Psalm 110:1
Yhwh declared to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand Until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet.”
There is cleary God and Jesus being implied in the scriptures and hes not...
If that is their point it really isnt a choice they should have made. Men's traditions should stay out of translations. God never said to remove his name and he wants it used, just not in an unholy way.
Ive never heard any of that. Sounds like a lot of philisophics.
God plainly said what his name is if you read Exodus 3:13-15. There is no guessing needed.
It was basically a command to know and use it
But Moses said to the true God: “Suppose I go to the Israelites and say to them, ‘The God of your forefathers has sent me to you,’ and they say to me, ‘What is his name?’ What should I say to them?” 14 So God said to Moses: “I Will Become What I...
The op doesnt imply it needed to be the direct rendering nor did any of my comments. Gods name was placed in the op to show what the scriptures said. They didnt say adonay(lord), which most bibles imply.
Sometimes what applies to Yhwh does apply to Jesus. Jesus aligned his will with Gods. Jesus was His spokesman much like the angel in the burning bush was not Yhwh but was attributed as such.
"Then Jehovah’s angel appeared to him in a flame of fire in the midst of a thornbush....When Jehovah saw...
Im not sure why you are needing one thing to be more important than the other...knowing Gods name is part of being a Christian.
"I have made your name known to them and will make it known, so that the love with which you loved me may be in them and I in union with them.”- John 17:26
“I have...
Because there are many translations you can know if its accurate. They agree with the others or the dont. While verbatium might very, the main message will remain.