Skwim
Veteran Member
So this is pretty confusing, but I'll try to explain it the best I can. The Greek word that is often translated as 'effeminate' or 'male prostitutes' is Malakos. It is a commonly used word in the Bible and, depending on the context, has been translated to mean numerous things. The general meaning attributed to it is 'soft' or 'flexible'. In scripture it refers to everything from fabric to someone with "flexible" morality. In 1 Corinthians 6:9 it is usually interpreted as a male or boy prostitute because of its pairing with the word Arsenokoites.
Arsenokoites is the word that is typically translated as 'homosexuals' or 'sodomites'. This word is a little trickier because there are few other times we have record of its use (in scripture or otherwise), so it is harder to determine its meaning from what little context we have. Outside of scripture it has been used to refer to pedophilia, rape, forcing someone to have sex with you for money, orgies (both heterosexual and homosexual) and incest. Generally it is always in the context of someone with power forcing themselves upon someone without it. In 575 A.D. a Christian treatise on sexual sin noted that men can commit the sin of arsen (singular of arsenokoites) with their wives, suggesting that it is not something exclusive to homosexual or extramarital relations.
I would hypothesize that both the translations of 'effeminate' and 'homosexual' are expressions of cultural fears and anxieties rather than the most accurate translations possible. I think the better argument is that this passage is condemning rape and prostitution more than anything else, but smarter people than I have said otherwise, so who am I to say? Regardless of how you decide to interpret the original Greek,
Here's my stance on arguments such as yours.
It makes absolutely no difference to me what persons A, B, or C around here think words X, Y, or Z originally meant in their Hebrew, Aramaic, and Koine Greek forms. What is important is what the experts---the various scholars who put the bible together---concluded was the best English word to convey the meaning of a particular word as originally written. Of course the various interpretations of a word---there are at least 10 different interpretations of the Hebrew ra in Isaiah 45:7---doesn't speak well for their efforts (I suspect the individual needs of the backers of the various versions intervened), but it's still the best we have; far better than the over-confident speculations of scriptural dilettantes or the cock-sure conclusions of lone, self-styled Biblical academics.
Bottom line: All words in the Bible stand as their definitions indicate. In the case of "effeminate," we have a word that means
Having feminine qualities untypical of a man :not manly in appearance or manner
(Merriam Webster)
Having the qualities generally attributed to women, as weakness, timidity, delicacy, etc.; unmanly; not virile
(Collins)
an effeminate man looks, behaves, or speaks like a woman
(Macmillan)
(of a man) having characteristics regarded as typical of a woman; unmanly.
(Oxford)
(Merriam Webster)
Having the qualities generally attributed to women, as weakness, timidity, delicacy, etc.; unmanly; not virile
(Collins)
an effeminate man looks, behaves, or speaks like a woman
(Macmillan)
(of a man) having characteristics regarded as typical of a woman; unmanly.
(Oxford)
Want to pretend it means something else, go right ahead, but I'm not buying it.
Considering that my question was:I hope this has helped answer your questions.
"What's god's problem with men with feminine characteristics? A problem so appalling that it's as sinful as fornication and adultery."
It's obvious you never came close.
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