Actually in the past posts, you've frequently contradict yourself.
One moment you would claim that eternity is "indefinite" (like above, in the 1st line), and in the next moment you claimed that eternity is "timelessness".
You are the genius with English - or so you've claimed - and yet you muddle "indefinite" and '"timelessness" as if they were one and same, when they actually have different meanings.
In one of your older post, you wrote:
The word, "
indefinite". Indefinite doesn't mean "timeless" or "timelessness", and though eternity can be indefinite, that's only if you only imply, so it really depends on usage. Time being indefinite doesn't necessarily or explicitly mean "eternity".
Here is the definition for indefinite:
indefinite adjective (Oxford dictionary)
1 Lasting for an unknown or unstated length of time.
2 Not clearly expressed or defined; vague.
That's not what timelessness mean:
timeless adjective (Oxford dictionary)
Not affected by the passage of time or changes in fashion.
And you frequently state time is mere mental construct, without any basis of reality other than that of mental construct:
No one states "time" is "mass" or "energy", but without time, it would not be possible to measure possible to measure motion of any body (object) such as velocity, acceleration, gravity, nor would you be able to measure force, energy or field (e.g. gravitational, electromagnetic).
In the above quote, you say what caused the Earth's motion, such as its rotational motion and its orbital motion around the Sun.
The masses of two bodies, the Earth and Sun, caused the motion, because both have gravitational fields, which both would generate force to cause motion of the bodies, therefore gravity of two objects are only possible if there were acceleration.
You can only measure velocity and acceleration, if you can measure or calculate time.
Time is therefore part of reality, and not merely mental construct.
Time is fact, because it can be measured.
You ask what cause motion of the pendulum in a clock to swing. You say "force", but where does "force" come from, if not from the "mass" of pendulum and "mass" of the Earth. As the mass of Earth generate gravitational field, therefore it cause the pendulum to pull downwards (attraction to the Earth's field, gravity), which is the "force" you are talking about.
It is the gravitational field of one mass of body (i.e. Earth) that produces the force on another mass of another body (i.e. pendulum), and that's what caused the motion. And you cannot know what the forces and field are unless you know the time.
But the Earth-and-pendulum example is applied only using Newton's law of universal gravitation.
The gravitational field in General Relativity (GR) applied to astronomical bodies, where the fields are represented as the curvature of spacetime, and that involved Einstein's field equations. Again time is a factor. The main difference between Newton's and Einstein's field is that GR can be verified through the bending of light in the gravitational fields.
In any case, if time can be measure or calculated, then it is part of reality.
Now you either do not understand what is being said, or you think it is ok to be purposely obtuse, either way, there can't be a reasonable discussion until you correct these dificiencies. 
