That would be like the ”weeds” of Jesus’ parable finding out what the other “weeds” were teaching.....what would be the point if they are all “weeds”?
"Christendom" in its many denominations does not represent Christianity....how do we know? They don't all speak in agreement. (1 Corinthians 1:10)
Jesus said that he would assign a “faithful and discreet (wise) slave” to “feed” his fellow slaves their “food at the proper time”. (Matthew 24:45) He did not assign many slaves, just one, and we were to feed only what “he” served. So only one source of truth is from this “slave”......and according to the apostle Paul, there are only two tables at which to feed. (1 Corinthians 10:21) What does not come from Jesus, comes from his enemy. The one who showed the “weeds” of fake Christianity among the “wheat”.
Is it possible to imagine that you have the truth but have swallowed lies? Yes! according to Jesus, (Matthew7:21-23) But no true Christian is self taught because they are feeding at their own table.
Can we be sure that we are feeding at the right table....yes by examining the "fruitage" (actions and teachings) of the whole body of believers....are they united in their beliefs, regardless of what country they live in or what language they speak? Are they following all of Christ's teachings and commands, or only the convenient ones?
If that is the case then Jesus was a cult leader, using fear, control and brainwashing to gain his disciples. Did he do that? I see no evidence of it. He taught love and forgiveness and the correct way to worship his Father....never once claiming equality with him.
What if no one had followed him according to your evaluation? What happened to the ones who opposed and disbelieved him? (Matthew 23:37-39)
No one was permitted to teach anything other than what Jesus and the apostles taught. Is that brainwashing? (2 John 10-11)
In view of James 2:19, what does it mean to "believe" in your estimation?
JW's have no "Joseph Smith" or any leader other than Jesus Christ. We have no "prophets" other than the ones mentioned in the Bible, who speak to us today by extension. I have not found a single body of professed Christians who are even close to JW's in sticking close to Jesus' teachings and obeying his command to preach about God's Kingdom. (Matthew 28:19-20)
Jesus is NOT God, and never once claimed that he was. It is blasphemy to assume any equivalency between the Father and his Son.....not to mention breaking the first commandment by placing another “god “ in place of Jehovah. (Exodus 20:3) Jesus was the Son of God before he became the son of Mary. What does "only begotten mean"? How is Jesus "the only begotten Son" when God has many other "sons"?
If John 1:1 was translated accurately from the Greek manuscripts, then there could never have been a trinity in the first place.
If the KJV translates verse 1 accurately, then why did it translate verse 18 inaccurately?
John 1:1 KJV...
”In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”
John 1:18..
..”No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”
In the first verse “theos” is translated “God” but in the Greek, there are two “gods” mentioned. The Greeks were polytheists and all their gods had names, and collectively were simply called “the gods”. Since the God of the Jews was
not called by his name (Psalm 83:18) as the Jews had stopped uttering it, the only way to distinguish this God was to use the definite article “the” or “ho” in Greek.
If you read John 1:1 in Greek, you will see that only one “God” is identified as “the God” (ho theos). The Word (Jesus) is called “theos” but without the definite article. Theos in Greek means a “mighty or powerful one” and does not identify the God of the Bible exclusively. Jesus is also a “mighty one” but he is not “the God”.
The KJV in verse 18 translates “theos” as “the Son”......that is a serious translation error designed to promote the trinity, but for those who can understand the lie, it was blasphemous. If it translates verse 18 as “the Son” then verse 1 should also be translated accordingly as....”the Word was the Son”.
Your loyalty to the KJV is misplaced IMO. It is not an accurate translation. And no one speaks archaic English anymore...the whole purpose of translation is to make the meaning in todays language clearer. The KJV fails in that regard...in fact it confuses people.
I have just given you evidence of a very serious twisting of your own preferred Bible translation....so are
you letting the Bible speak for itself? Or are you allowing liars to provide you with error dressed up as truth? Deception is deception....does the one deceived know that they are?
There is no such place as Christendom’s “hell”. It is a sick invention designed by men to scare the pants off ignorant people so that they could control them...are you a victim yourself?
“Hell” is “sheol/ hades” which in scripture is nothing more scary than going to sleep. The scripture you quoted (John 3:16) is so misunderstood, but what does it really say?
“For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.”
What is offered as an opposite to everlasting life in this verse?
What does it mean to “perish”? Look it up.
The opposite of everlasting life is everlasting death.....nothing more scary than that.