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Atheists believe in miracles more than believers

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
The wiki article also mentions philosophy and causality being metaphysical.
So based on the article it is a toss up as far as I can tell.

BTW Wiki is not generally evidence. It is more if done good, a good starting point.
First, the point of the article is that causality is fundamental to Physics, with references. The reference was comprehensive also about the history, philosophy and other cultures, but the bottom line is "causality is fundamental to the science of Physics." Mentioning Metaphysics does not support your argument.

I gave several different sources supporting causality as fundamental to Physics and you failed to respond.



 
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Pogo

Well-Known Member
:facepalm: No. That was an entirely different idea that things like fleas and maggots could be spontaneously appear in the modern world from dust or rotting meat.

Absolutely nothing to do with modern hypotheses of abiogenesis that happened under very different circumstances in the early Earth, over a long period of time, and produced simple replicators that were probably hardly recognisable as life, but were subject to natural selection and hence evolution.

The level of scientific illiteracy involved in linking these two ideas is frightening.


The weird thing is that the conflation occurred on this large Indian remote learning site, not just in @Kfox's mind. It is almost as if it is a hack.

Otherwise, sort of a post out of the blue.
 

ratiocinator

Lightly seared on the reality grill.
Under the logic of the KCA...

Unlike the universe god didn't begin to exist therefore it requieres no "reason" .... It is not special pleading because God and the universe are disanalogous
LOL! You scurry straight back to temporal thinking of causes. As I've explained at length, most recently and compressively in #2,834, the space-time did not begin to exist. You could also try looking at the various philosophical 'theories' of time:

Time_Metaphysics.jpg

Basically, relativity forces us into eternalism, not least because of the relativity of simultaneity. It's a simple calculation to see that if two people stroll past each other, with a relative speed of 4mph, then the difference in what is happening 'now' relative to each, at the distance of the Andromeda Galaxy is about 5½ days. That is just due to special relativity and the relative speed, ignoring the further complications in GR.

The relative speed is tiny, and the Andromeda Galaxy is very close is cosmological terms. The gradient of the hyperplane of simultaneity is v/c², where v is the relative speed and c is the speed of light.

We live in a space-time in which all points in time exist together and time does not flow.
 

mikkel_the_dane

My own religion
LOL! You scurry straight back to temporal thinking of causes. As I've explained at length, most recently and compressively in #2,834, the space-time did not begin to exist. You could also try looking at the various philosophical 'theories' of time:

...

I looked at the referenced post and I couldn't find any observational data that confirms that there are other universes or any observation of that space-time did not begin to exist?

Or use of actual instruments and experiments?
 

cladking

Well-Known Member
It is a view of being right and everything else is wrong. I'm open to being wrong and learning, but there seems to be certain types of people that are not. I wish there was a way to bridge that gap, but it would require recognition of it and I'm afraid one-sided recognition of limitations is part of the problem.

People talk right past one another all the time. We don't notice it when we speak to like minded individuals and barely notice it when we speak to those with whom we share little common ground. But we do a good job of parsing sentences only when we agree with one another. Much of the cause for it is that we each parse words according to our own individual beliefs And when one of these errors in parsing comes to light we accuse the speaker of using words incorrectly. Fixing the problem can be impossible with some individuals and they are best left to an "ignore list".

Of course there are conversational habits that also interfere with communication; some people refuse to listen even when it's in written form and they can take their time with it. When you're speaking instead of listening or trying to parse your words as intended, they are busily framing a counterargument to what they believe you are going to say or searching for key words to berate you with them ripped from context.

I have far more in common with the atheists around here than with the theists, and was one for many years, but still most mistake me for a theist simply because I point out that science has become largely a belief system and as a belief system it is wholly unsupported by experiment. Theists are often making solid arguments to support their beliefs while believers in science aren't addressing those arguments. Instead they are busily "correcting" the "errors" they believe exist in the theistic understanding of science. Granted, of course, that theists on average don't understand science as well as this specific group of atheists who are often mistaking their opinions and beliefs (as well as their models) for Revealed Truth).

We should all be asking for more elaboration and definitions. I misunderstood the concept of each individual being the same species as its parents in post after post. I didn't ask for clarification even though I was parsing the sentence such that it was obvious nonsense. This should always be a tip off that we misunderstand because everyone makes sense all the time. I still don't agree with the contention but now I understand it well enough to get the question right on the test.

Communication has been a precious gift since language became confused when homo sapiens became extinct and homo omnisciencis circularis rationatio arose. It is very rare. Unless both individuals can agree that "I know that you know that I know you know I know you know..." Ad infinitum, then communication is not perfect. It's hard for us to imagine that in other species including homo sapiens communication is and was like this. Our species simply take all things at face value because we can't exist otherwise. We take language at face value and we take the meaning of the other party's utterances at face value. We can't even exist unless we do this because we can't even sense the world around us without knowing everything there is to know and then reasoning in circles so we can't see how wrong we are.

I'll try to take my own advice and ask for more clarification, but obviously like all of us I'll stumble blindly ahead trying to get my points across preferentially to understanding others. Like all of us I'll be sure I understand and disagree when I read something that is "wrong".
 
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shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
I looked at the referenced post and I couldn't find any observational data that confirms that there are other universes or any observation of that space-time did not begin to exist?

Or use of actual instruments and experiments?
Your look is superficial with your over emphasis "observational data" The concept of space time beginning to exist only applies to our universe, and all possible universe in a possible multiverse. Your view reflects an intentional ignorance of Theoretical Physics and the role of observational data.

It is a given that you question causality of "observational data" anyway based on a vague nebulous foggy philosophical perspective.
 
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It Aint Necessarily So

Veteran Member
Premium Member
the word prove means to me that it's beyond doubt
Yes, pleasant exchange. Thank you, too.

On the street, to prove something to somebody means to convince them that the claim is correct, and the standard is beyond reasonable doubt even if neither party knows that. That's what it means when a prosecutor says that he will prove such-and-such - beyond reasonable doubt. Nothing can have a higher endorsement.

If you want to resolve this issue, change your definition of prove to prove beyond reasonable doubt, or use other language such as verity, confirm, or demonstrated all with beyond reasonable doubt added explicitly or assumed.

In mathematics, prove has a technical definition of no interest to you or this discussion.
I'm purty sure you would agree that verifying the theory (in some people's minds) doesn't mean the theory is TRUE
That depends what you mean by true. Do you mean the same as proven? If so, then you know the answer. Theories are never proven. If by true you mean demonstrated to be correct beyond reasonable doubt, the theory meets that criterion.
I used to wonder whatever did Descartes mean when he said, "I rhink, therefore I am." What, I thought? I'm not even going to try to explain it or analyze it.
He meant that everything else he thinks he knows might be a deception except for the fact that he is aware and therefore exists. That's where Descartes' demon comes into play. Descartes has no way to rule out that a demon is controlling everything he sees, thinks, feels, etc., but even so, he exists to be fooled like that. Descartes chose a demon over God doing this because he considered such a possibility a lie or deception, something beneath his god.
I have rarely if ever seen you give a complete detailed informative answer.
When you write comments like that one, or "Another example of your lack of knowledge and inability to explain," or "You're arguing from lack of truthfulness and knowledge," you are assuming that you are qualified to judge those things and that others agree. But that's not the case for somebody with an uniformed opinion. And perhaps you are unaware of what that means, what alternative there is, and how you and your opinions appear to those who have learned the science and can see that you haven't.

You also wrote to @Pogo, "There are others reading your posts. Nobody sees any knowledge coming out of your posts." Disagree. I do. YOU don't, and that's the point, and why you shouldn't continue offering yourself as a standard for comprehension and knowledge. Humility requires that you recognize that and adapt accordingly. To continue offering yourself as a metric reveals a lack of insight about yourself.

There are three rungs on the latter. At the top is the informed, critical thinker. Next is the person who doesn't have that knowledge but recognizes that some others do possess expertise and knows to go to them for counsel. And then there is what can be called the Dunning-Kruger contingent, who aren't aware that all ideas aren't just guesses and are therefore as good as any other. This is the person who when confronted with the morbidity and mortality data on Covid vaccines can't interpret it, doesn't recognize that there can be experts who should be heeded, believes unqualified people, and when confronted with facts, says, "That's just your opinion" or "I disagree" without offering a rebuttal.
so do you claim that a world view that includes naturalism is better supported by the evidence than theism? (yes or no). if yes, then you have aburden proof
The way it is worded is that naturalism is the preferred explanation because it is more parsimonious that a supernaturalistic explanation, which unlike naturalistic explanations that only require that nature exists, also require the existence of a second kind of reality, one not in evidence.

There is no burden of proof with that statement. If one doesn't understand why an unnecessarily complex narrative is subordinate (but not said to be ruled out) to a simpler one that can also account for all relevant observation, then he is not prepared to hear a "proof" and there is no burden to demonstrate what he is unprepared to understand.

Have you seen the videos of drunks being arrested and asking over and over and over and over again, "What am I being arrested for?" There's no duty to keep answering when the subject is unprepared to assimilate the answer.
Well and what is wrong with the arguments commonly provided by theists………say William lane creig´s version of the kalam cosmological argument ? (o pick any other common argument)
You can find rebuttals of those arguments on the Internet. Craig's is called the Kalam cosmological argument. That one's pretty easy to refute: Irony of the evolutionary belief

Here are the names of several others for you to explore:
  • The Cosmological Argument. Everything that exists must have a cause. ...
  • The Ontological Argument. ...
  • The Argument from Design.
  • The Argument from The Big Bang. ...
  • The Arguments from the Fine-Tuning of Physical Constants. ...
  • The Argument from the Beauty of Physical Laws. ...
  • The Argument from Cosmic Coincidences.
  • The Argument from Morality
And there is this from Aquinas:
  1. Part I. The Argument from Motion. (Thomas argues that since everything that moves is moved by another, there must thereby exist an Unmoved Mover.)
  2. Part II. The Argument from Efficient Cause. (The sequence of causes which make up this universe must have a First Cause.)
  3. Part III. The Argument to Necessary Being. (Since all existent things depend upon other things for their existence, there must exist at least one thing that is not dependent and so is a Necessary Being.)
  4. Part IV. The Argument from Gradation. (Since all existent things can be compared to such qualities as degrees of goodness, there must exist something that is an Absolutely Good Being.)
  5. Part V. The Argument from Design. (Also named “The Teleological Argument”— The intricate design and order of existent things and natural processes imply that a Great Designer exists.)
do you really think that things can come into existence without a cause?
We don't know that they can't. Yes, it's counterintuitive, but so is the only alternative: that something has existed infinitely into the past. You believe that about your god, correct - that it never came into being but rather, always existed, right? The same can be said about the universe or multiverse if one exists. It seems that something must have either always existed (including time) or came into being uncaused. @ratiocinator offered an argument against the latter being a coherent concept.
the point is that the age of the universe is likely finite,. (there was a first moment)……agree?
There appears to be a first moment of expansion, but nothing can be said about how long that seed existed before that began.
 

SkepticThinker

Veteran Member
1 it was not the first resoult in my google + how am I suppose to guess that your intent was to provide that source?

2 I find it ironic, that you demand peer reviewed sources, but you provide reedit articles as a source

3 as for your source

Let’s go through each premise one by one. For P1, what exactly is meant by that? P1 is not some logical axiom, it is supposedly an empirical fact. So what is that fact, what, exactly does “begin to exist” mean and how do we know that to do that you need a cause? “Begin to exist” is a loaded term, so to clarify things, let’s apply it to a chair. When did a chair begin to exist? Most would say when it is finished being assembled. A baby began to exist when it came out of the womb, a star began to exist when it started fusing hydrogen into helium, etc. The important thing to note is that none of these are acts of creation, they are acts of state change. Energy cannot be created or destroyed. The mass of a chair all assembled is the same as it is when it is just a bunch of pieces from IKEA. A star doesn’t suddenly appear out of thin air, there was a proto star before it and there will be a white dwarf/neutron star/black hole after it (though it will blow most of its mass and energy into space). In our universe, nothing is ever created out of nothing (barring quantum weirdness and I will get to that) things are just moved around and change state. So to rephrase the first premise, Everything that goes through a state change has a cause.” That is an inductive fact, I’m happy to grant that. Things don’t go from water to ice or back to water without some cause attached.

That in red is a straw man…………the one who makes the argument is the one who “decides” what he means with each word…………….it is not honest to simply change the definition of words at your will so that you can get a premise with implications that you like

If you want to know what “begins to exists” means in this context, you must ask the guy who is making the argument, you don’t get to twist the definitions to your convenience…………………all words have many definitions, why not using the actual definition provided by the person that made the argument, rather than neat picking your favorite and more convenient definition?


Once you admit that the author of the post is making a dishonest star man I will continue reading the rest in search for other flaws
Why would anyone need a peer reviewed article to pick apart the Kalam Cosmological argument??
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
Really, do you really think that things can come in to existence without a cause?
Are you saying that at a quantum level particles come in to existence without a cause? (which would be wrong)
There is no evidence that the Quantum world based on Quantum Mechanics ever began to exist.
That is just a smeantic issue………… the point is that the age of the universe is likely finite,. (there was a first moment)……agree?
Not semantics at all, The Big Bang theory does not consider the first moment for the expansion of the universe as a finite beginning. The expansion of the universe is from a preexisting singularity in a Quantum World based on Quantum Mechanic.

The cause of those things that go through a change is Natural Laws, which there is no evidence that Natural Laws have a prior cause or came into existence at any point in time.
 
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ratiocinator

Lightly seared on the reality grill.
I looked at the referenced post and I couldn't find any observational data that confirms that there are other universes or any observation of that space-time did not begin to exist?

Who mentioned other universes?

If eternalism is true, then all of space and time exist as one object, and 'beginning to exist' becomes meaningless.

Did the Earth begin to exist at the North Pole? If you think so, then why not any other point on the globe? The space-time is, as a whole, timeless (never changes, doesn't begin to exist nor can it stop existing, it just exists) because time is just a coordinate on it, like latitude or longitude on Earth.

The evidence is all the correct predictions of special and general relativity that are based on the manifold.
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
1 it was not the first resoult in my google + how am I suppose to guess that your intent was to provide that source?

2 I find it ironic, that you demand peer reviewed sources, but you provide reedit articles as a source

3 as for your source

Let’s go through each premise one by one. For P1, what exactly is meant by that? P1 is not some logical axiom, it is supposedly an empirical fact. So what is that fact, what, exactly does “begin to exist” mean and how do we know that to do that you need a cause? “Begin to exist” is a loaded term, so to clarify things, let’s apply it to a chair. When did a chair begin to exist? Most would say when it is finished being assembled. A baby began to exist when it came out of the womb, a star began to exist when it started fusing hydrogen into helium, etc. The important thing to note is that none of these are acts of creation, they are acts of state change. Energy cannot be created or destroyed. The mass of a chair all assembled is the same as it is when it is just a bunch of pieces from IKEA. A star doesn’t suddenly appear out of thin air, there was a proto star before it and there will be a white dwarf/neutron star/black hole after it (though it will blow most of its mass and energy into space). In our universe, nothing is ever created out of nothing (barring quantum weirdness and I will get to that) things are just moved around and change state. So to rephrase the first premise, Everything that goes through a state change has a cause.” That is an inductive fact, I’m happy to grant that. Things don’t go from water to ice or back to water without some cause attached.

That in red is a straw man…………the one who makes the argument is the one who “decides” what he means with each word…………….it is not honest to simply change the definition of words at your will so that you can get a premise with implications that you like

If you want to know what “begins to exists” means in this context, you must ask the guy who is making the argument, you don’t get to twist the definitions to your convenience…………………all words have many definitions, why not using the actual definition provided by the person that made the argument, rather than neat picking your favorite and more convenient definition?


Once you admit that the author of the post is making a dishonest star man I will continue reading the rest in search for other flaws
Please note your selective reference in red Everything that goes through a state change has a cause." and understand what it means, It is true in the context of the overall nature of our physical existence it is true, but this only applies to those things individually that go through a state of change has a cause, This does not translate to the Quantum World based on Quantum Mechanics ever came into existence.
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
So we have observed eternalism or is it just if we assume it...?
By observation there is not evidence that the Quantum World began to exist. The current conclusion of the the theoretical Penrose-Hawking Theory of a boundless universe that may be cyclic'

The problem is no evidence that our physical existence ever began to exist. What evidence could you provide that it began to exist?
 

ratiocinator

Lightly seared on the reality grill.
So we have observed eternalism or is it just if we assume it...?
False dichotomy. Relativity is based on the idea and doesn't work without it. It directly explains observed phenomena like time dilation and also provides us with the best theory of gravitation.

Time dilation is pretty conclusive because it is symmetric and extremely difficult to explain without considering space-time as a single geometry and velocity being a kind of 'rotation' of the views of which directions through it represent time and space.

Of course, you can't directly observe eternalism, but we have plentiful evidence for it in the fact that relativity has a flawless record in making correct predictions.

But we can go further in the context of this discussion, because, even if it were to be wrong, it would still be logically possible (self-consistent) and therefore further undermine all the arguments that refer to a universe with a finite past needing a cause (not that they need yet another objection, they're quite silly enough without it).
 

mikkel_the_dane

My own religion
False dichotomy. Relativity is based on the idea and doesn't work without it. It directly explains observed phenomena like time dilation and also provides us with the best theory of gravitation.

Time dilation is pretty conclusive because it is symmetric and extremely difficult to explain without considering space-time as a single geometry and velocity being a kind of 'rotation' of the views of which directions through it represent time and space.

Of course, you can't directly observe eternalism, but we have plentiful evidence for it in the fact that relativity has a flawless record in making correct predictions.

But we can go further in the context of this discussion, because, even if it were to be wrong, it would still be logically possible (self-consistent) and therefore further undermine all the arguments that refer to a universe with a finite past needing a cause (not that they need yet another objection, they're quite silly enough without it).

Now you just have to solve the cosmological principle, and show the logic is physical and not just thinking in brains.
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
Now you just have to solve the cosmological principle, and show the logic is physical and not just thinking in brains.
I do not believe the the Cosmological Principle needs to be solved. Your response needs clarification. What is the problem with the Cosmological Principle?


The cosmological principle is a fundamental principle and assumption of cosmology stating that, on a large scale, the universe is both homogenous and isotropic. In other words, the cosmological principle posits a relatively uniform universe. The cosmological principle is the second pillar of the Big Bang Model.

If you accept the Big Bang model you should accept the the Cosmological principle.

If no response on your part nothing needs to solved.
 

leroy

Well-Known Member
No, because I'm not claiming that it's the right hypothesis. I don't need to, to dismiss WLC's drivel. I'm denying his claim that it's impossible (not that that's his most significant blunder).

Nope,. You are claiming that premise 2 is false ……which means that the minimal requirement is to sow that “past eternal” models are more likely to be true than past finite models…………showing that some models are “possible” is not enough …………you need to show that this models are more likely to be true.

Don't really have a favourite, by Penrose's Conformal Cyclic Cosmology is neat.


Wasn't really my point. Most of them don't have infinite pasts but also don't have first moments, but Conformal Cyclic Cosmology does have an infinite past. Follow the above link or watch this:
before watching the video

1 does the model cliam that the universe is past eternal?

2 do you afirm that the model is more likely to be true than th standard big bang model?

if you dont answer yes to both questions, then I will dismiss it as irrelevant

What don't you get? It's a basic property of a continuum that it is infinitely divisible. Take two numbers, say 0 and 1. You can find a point between them, e.g. 0.5. Then do the same between 0 and 0.5, to get 0.25, do the same between 0 and 0.25, and you can go on doing this literally forever to get an infinite number of points. Translate the numbers to distance, say metres, and you have the result.

Wrong, (in red lettes) I could not do that forever, eventually I will get tired, or my computer will run out of power, or it will collapse…………….. I grant that you can imagine and make models of something infinite……………but in the real world you can´t really have something infinite.


The claim that you were born after an infinite number of seconds or an infinite number of events is nonsense (agree)?.............if you don’t explicitly disagree I will assume that you agree

Let's look at an analogy. Space-time is a geometrical manifold with 4-dimensions. So is the surface of the earh (or any sphere), with 2-dimensions. If we ignore 2 dimenions of space and compare the space-time with the surface of Earth, we can compare longitude with time and latitude with space. Except, it's not quite that simple, as there are many directions on the Earth that are neither latitude nor longitude. It's actually (sort of) the same with space-time, except every observer will see a different direction as time, so we need to define the possible time directions and the possible space directions (as seen by each observer) so we end up with spacelike directions and timelike ones, So let's do the same on the surface of the earth. If a direction that's closer to being longitude, we can call it a longitudelike direction, and similarly with latitudelike directions.

The main difference now is that, on Earth, there are absolute latitudes and longitudes. This is not true in space-time; there are no absolute time and space directions. So space and time are even less well-defined in space-time, than latitude and longitude on Earth.

All we are left with in space-time are spacelike and timelike directions, and even those vary from point to point. In fact, in extreme examples (like black holes), they swap over entirely, so a spacelike direction at one point can become timelike at another.

All we are left with is the space-time manifold itself and its geometry. There is no universal time that applies to all of it. The way we calculate the 'time' back to the BB is using the time of an impossible notional observer, that emerged from the big bang as was literally unaffected by anything but the expansion of the universe.

Can you see now that it is only the manifold that exists, and it has to exist as a whole, because different observers see different slices through it as space and time? It cannot 'start to exist' because unless it all exists, we cannot account for every observer. There cannot be a universal past, present, and future that applies to it all, so it has to just be.

You may be more familiar with the idea of 'eternalism' or the 'block universe'. This is basically the model relativity forces us into. Past, present, and future all have to exist together in order for them to be relative in the way required.
1 eternalism or “block universe” is far from “uncontroversialy true” one can adopt presentism without denying GR nor any other scientific law/theory/theorem/fact.... It is false to say that relativity forces us to this interpretation of time………….

2 Block universe has implications that I am sure you are not willing to follow.

3 from the fact that block universe is true it doesn’t follow that the block universe “just is”.it could still have a cause or a “reason”

4 even if past present and future are all “equally real” and simultaneous ….that doesn’t invalidate “cause and effect” it would still be true your where born (effect) because your parents had sex (cause) even if both events are simultaneous……………. Therefore the concept of a “first cause” would still be valid………….at worst we would have to invent new words and change for example “firs” for some other tens less word

You may be more familiar with the idea of 'eternalism' or the 'block universe'. This is basically the model relativity forces us into. Past, present, and future all have to exist together in order for them to be relative in the way required.

(sarcasm)

Ohh so you think that past present and future are equally real and simultaneous?..............this would mean that cause and effect are simulnteous……………….which is nonsense according to the super smart user @TagliatelliMonster

Wait and see his brilliant objection to your claims
 

mikkel_the_dane

My own religion
Nope,. You are claiming that premise 2 is false ……which means that the minimal requirement is to sow that “past eternal” models are more likely to be true than past finite models…………showing that some models are “possible” is not enough …………you need to show that this models are more likely to be true.


...

Because you say so or what? What makes your demand true?
 
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