Rhadamanthus
Limenoscopus
What does first clause have to do with the second?
Christians invented antisemitism
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What does first clause have to do with the second?
Actually, the Egyptians started that racket. Re-read Exodus.Christians invented antisemitism
Wait a minute...what?Christians invented antisemitism
Actually, the Egyptians started that racket. Re-read Exodus.
Also, if you're trying to be coherent, you aren't quite there. Good thing I'm semi-fluent in drunken rant.
A couple problems with these bald assertions:Jews (Sea People) Invaded Egypt, all Egyptians did was push them out into what is known as Canaan. Egyptians did not do it because they hated there Religion or for antisemitic reasons.
Your definition is unique, and not the one used by Wilhelm Marr(the originator of the term). He defined it as a hatred towards anyone of the Jewish "race". Now Jews are defined primarily on how they define themselves, as both an ethnic and a religious group.Antisemitism is "Hatred towards the Jewish Religion"
I started by working with your translation, and I commented on it. Then it became apparent you weren't interested in actually translating anything but only on promoting your own theory:Attack what i translated
Which is your first mistake (unless you mean that you don't skip over any words, but no translation does). Word for word translations (and literal translations) are poor often even for very similar languages. When you are translating a language which uses an inflectional system and grammar so different from English then it will inevitably fail because, for example, english verbs require subject pronouns, except for pronouns adjectives and nouns lack gender (as do verbs), the tense systems are different, and on and on. English relies heavily on idiomatic use of prepositions to relate nouns, NPs, and in verbal constructions. These are completely different than biblical Hebrew.I translated each Hebrew word in English
This is a basic aspect of biblical Hebrew grammar. Number in any language isn't strict. A count noun in one language is a mass noun in another, a noun which is generally singular in one language is generally plural in another, and so on. The use of plural and singular nouns in ancient Hebrew doesn't strictly correspond to English (and how are you planning to hand dual?), and if you don't understand this then you have no business translating.I never understand why a Hebrew Plural is always a Singular, IF Genesis author wrote Plurals then so be it.
I also tried to make the Text make more sense, and get rid of extra anomalies that never appeared in the Original
Attack the messenger and not message, instead of flooding thread
Two origins for such displays of poor education:I blame public education
Wilhelm Marr(the originator of the term). He defined it as a hatred towards an[yone of the Jewish "race". Now Jews are defined primarily on how they define themselves, as both an ethnic and a religious group.
Ok, now you say his encouragement of antisemitism was proper? This is very telling.Wilhelm marr properly encouraged antisemitism by calling them a RACE, why not call "Christians" a race too ??
I started by working with your translation, and I commented on it. Then it became apparent you weren't interested in actually translating anything but only on promoting your own theory:
Which is your first mistake (unless you mean that you don't skip over any words, but no translation does). Word for word translations (and literal translations) are poor often even for very similar languages. When you are translating a language which uses an inflectional system and grammar so different from English then it will inevitably fail because, for example, english verbs require subject pronouns, except for pronouns adjectives and nouns lack gender (as do verbs), the tense systems are different, and on and on. English relies heavily on idiomatic use of prepositions to relate nouns, NPs, and in verbal constructions. These are completely different than biblical Hebrew.
This is a basic aspect of biblical Hebrew grammar. Number in any language isn't strict. A count noun in one language is a mass noun in another, a noun which is generally singular in one language is generally plural in another, and so on. The use of plural and singular nouns in ancient Hebrew doesn't strictly correspond to English (and how are you planning to hand dual?), and if you don't understand this then you have no business translating.
You can't read the original, the "anomalies" you speak of in other translations are the product of those whose knowledge of the language, text, and it's socio-cultural/religious background is much greater than yours. Why on earth would you presume to have a superior "sense" of a text you can't actually read?
When the message is gibberish, and the messenger doesn't seem to realize it, about all one can do is try to make the messenger realize that.
That attack clearly showed your lack of understanding of a language you deem yourself qualified to "translate".The only term you attacked was the usage of "Elohim" as being "Gods", but it seems to make sense to use its as a plural, when it stands alone, without Yahweh prefixing it. which is used in genesis 1, where Yahweh/Adonay fail to appear.
Use this passage as Example:-
Gen 1:27 (mine)
The Gods fashioned man in there own ressemblence, the ressemblence of the gods created males and females created them.
Genesis 1:27
Then Gods said, "Let US make man in OUR image, in OUR likeness
-----
Genesis 3:5 (mine)
The Gods know that in time, when you eat, you eyes will open and you be like the Gods, knowing right from wrong
Genesis 3:22 (mine)
Jove said, behold, adam has become one of us, who knows of Good and Evil, he brought forth his hand, take also from the tree of life and ate to live forever
Genesis 3:22 (niv)
And the LORD God said, "The man has now become like one of us
(who is Us)
Passages make more sense with a Plural, except when "Elohim is next to Jove"
Jove Elohim (Jove of the Gods) as being a single god of the Elohim pantheon
That attack clearly showed your lack of understanding of a language you deem yourself qualified to "translate".
Then there are masculine words that have feminine plurals, lake Abba and Avot.The Hebrew language is not that cut and dry. not only does it have words that look plural but are singular, it also has words that are masculine and feminine, and if you plural those words it does not always say that everyone involved is male. Female plurals yes. All involved are female. Masculine plurals no. not everyone has to be male.
Further, when you look at the root word, it does not always match the word you are trying to translate. This does not even take into account what other words mean the same thing or whether that word has other definitions.
How many times do I need to say this? Wikipedia is not evidence, and the use of it makes you look ignorant.lack of understanding this
Canaanite religion - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
The Jewish Pantheon (the elohim)
How many times do I need to say this? Wikipedia is not evidence, and the use of it makes you look ignorant.
inscriptions linking Yahweh and Asherah have been discovered: an 8th century BCE ostracon inscribed "Berakhti etkhem l’YHVH Shomron ul’Asherato" (Hebrew: בירכתי אתכם ליהוה שומרון ולאשרתו‎ was discovered by Israeli archeologists at Kuntillet Ajrud (Hebrew "Horvat Teman") in the course of excavations in the Sinai desert in 1975. This translates as: "I have blessed you by YHVH of Samaria and His Asherah
Maybe you need to actually go study instead of pasting a quickly-searched and poorly-sourced Wikipedia link that doesn't qualify for evidence in ANY academic circle.Maybe you being antisemitic for denying Semitic Religion and Jewish gods that where worshiped in Judea.
Source pleaseMaybe you being antisemitic for denying Semitic Religion and Jewish gods that where worshiped in Judea.