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Bible contradictions

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
Would you consider the figurative humble 'sheep' found at Jesus' coming Glory Time - Matt. 25:31-34,37 - as 'chosen people ' ?
No. A People is not an expression used to denote good individuals. It is usually used in reference to a tribe, as in the Cherokee people.
 
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paarsurrey

Veteran Member
Shem Tob's Hebrew Gospel of Matthew Matthew 27:46


יֵשׁוּ (Yeshu) – J esus צָעַק (tsa'ak) - cried out בְּקוֹל (be'kol) - with a loud voice גָּדוֹל (gadol) - great אוֹמֵר (omer) - saying בִּלְשׁוֹן (bilshon) - in the language הַקּוֹדֶשׁ (ha'kodesh) - the holy אֵלִי (Eli) - My God אֵלִי (Eli) - My God לָמָה (lama) - why עֲזַבְתָּנִי (azavtani) - have you forsaken me

WTT Psalm 22:2


אֵלִ֣י (Eli) - My God אֵ֭לִי (Eli) - My God לָמָ֣ה (Lama) - why עֲזַבְתָּ֑נִי (Azavtani) - have you forsaken me רָח֥וֹק (Rachok) - far מִֽ֜ישׁוּעָתִ֗י (Mishu'ati) - from my salvation דִּבְרֵ֥י (Dibrei) - the words שַׁאֲגָתִֽי (Sha'agati) - of my groaning

Matthew. 27:46



Mark. 15:34



Psalm 21:1 LXX



Beza M-05A Matthew 27:46


Beza M-05A Mark 15:34


Pe.shi.tta
Pe****ta


We can read in our Bible: "eli eli lema sabachtani," as well as "eloi eloi lama sabaktani." But there is also the reading from the Pe.shi.tta: "eil eil lmana shvaqtan," and even a Hebrew reading (D 05 Codex): "Elei Elei lama zaphtanei" (both in Matthew and Mark).

  1. "Eli" is Hebrew, Aramaic, but also appears in the Aramaic text from Qumran called Genesis Apocryphon.
  2. "Lama" is Hebrew, but as the vocalic reduction had not been completed in the first century, this distinction with the Aramaic "lema" did not yet exist (= it was pronounced lama in Aramaic, as we can see a parallel in Greek, the transcription of which "for whom" is written as "laman" instead of the well-known Leman).
  3. "Sabaktani" is Aramaic; the "s" transcribes the sound "sh," and "b" the bilabial "v" sound, there is no problem with that.
Jesus said on the cross: ELI ELI LAMA SHAVAQTANI

But why do we have "eloi" in some Gospels? The Pe.shi.tta gives us the answer: this phrase was "translated" into another dialect: eil eil lmana shvaqtan (meaning) alah alah lmana shvaqtan. There was confusion between Jesus' words and their brilliance in the Greek text. "Eloi" is the transliteration of Elohi, which is a Hebraized form of elahi. On the other hand, the Pe.shi.tta retained the record of this brilliance (unlike the ancient Syrians who followed the Greek texts), despite being written in an eastern dialect (which explains the difference in pronunciation).

The variation between "ἱνατί" (Matthew 27:46) and "εἰς τί" (Mark 15:34) may have occurred due to the possibility of a third translation, such as "Eli, eli, la-ma shavaqtani: 'My God, my God, for what purpose (with this intention, namely, the crucifixion) have you forsaken me.'" Instead of "lama" (why?), we can read "la ma" (l + ma) for this, and there is no longer a question about why God did something, but rather Jesus' final testimony about his mission.
I don't know the Hebrew, kindly, just tell whether Jesus spoke the words on the Cross in Aramaic or not, please, right??

Regards
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
Jesus spoke in the holy language, in Hebrew.
Actually, by the time of Jesus, Hebrew had been replaced by Aramaic as the local language. Jesus would have spoken Aramaic in his day to day conversations. Hebrew was studied in order to read the Torah and Prophets, and so Jesus likely knew enough Hebrew to do that.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
paarsurrey said:
I don't know the Hebrew, kindly, just tell whether Jesus spoke the words on the Cross in Aramaic or not, please, right??
And one's argument for that, please?
Regards
Jesus did speak Aramaic, but I never heard whether what he said was in Hebrew or not.
Plus, the pole, the beam, the stake, the timber, Jesus was executed on did Not have to be a T-shaped cross.
Acts 10:39; 13:29 uses the word: tree. See also Galatians 3:13 B
" xy'lon " the Greek word does not refer to a t-shape.
By the time of Constantine, the pagan Tau with a lowered "t" became popular use as a cross.
Thus, wrongly allowing the converted non-Christians to keep their jewelery changing the Tau to cross.
 

paarsurrey

Veteran Member
Jesus spoke in the holy language, in Hebrew.

Actually, by the time of Jesus, Hebrew had been replaced by Aramaic as the local language. Jesus would have spoken Aramaic in his day to day conversations. Hebrew was studied in order to read the Torah and Prophets, and so Jesus likely knew enough Hebrew to do that.

And one's argument for that, please?
Friend @Betho_br ,please.
^?

Regards
_______________
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
"Holy land" dont seem so holy.
"Holy" simply means to set something aside from the others for God's purposes. For example, Jews set aside the seventh day from all the other days, so the sabbath is holy. We call Israel "holy" because it was the land set aside by God for the Jews as part of our covenant with God. The site of the Temple would be another example of holy land.
 

rstrats

Active Member
Every individual has a different vocabulary, different personalities and as such will relate incidences differently. You and I could relate the same story and you may relate each and every minutiae whereas I may not be so vocal and relate just the basics - doesn't make them contradictory at all - one just contains more detail than the other.
The Matthew account has Mary going to the tomb, having an angel telling her that the Messiah has risen and that He will be seen in Galilee, having her leaving with "great joy" to tell the disciples, having her met by the Messiah on the way, having her worshiping Him, having Him telling her to tell the disciples to go to Galilee to see Him.

The John account, however, has Mary going to the tomb, seeing the stone rolled away, and then running to tell the disciples "they have taken away the Lord out of the tomb and we do not know where they have laid Him".

That goes way beyond deferent details, it's flat out contradictory.
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
There is no contradiction between 1 Sam 31:4 and 2 Sam 1:10.

One is an account of the truth, the other a porky by an opportunistic Amalekite intent on winning the favour of a new king by lying to him. The fact the Amalekite was struck down dead tells us exactly where his deceit got him!
Both in the scripture and remain a contradiction.
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
Nothing is known to be written 50 years after Jesus died.
The earliest book of the NT is thought to perhaps be 1 Thessalonians, and scholars say it was written aground 49-51 CE, so about 2 decades after Jesus death. The last NT book to be written was most likely Revelation, and scholars estimate it was written around 96 CE, so about 6 decades after Jesus' death. While these estimates are not uncommon, they are not unanimous.
 

amazing grace

Active Member
The Matthew account has Mary going to the tomb, having an angel telling her that the Messiah has risen and that He will be seen in Galilee, having her leaving with "great joy" to tell the disciples, having her met by the Messiah on the way, having her worshiping Him, having Him telling her to tell the disciples to go to Galilee to see Him.

The John account, however, has Mary going to the tomb, seeing the stone rolled away, and then running to tell the disciples "they have taken away the Lord out of the tomb and we do not know where they have laid Him".

That goes way beyond deferent details, it's flat out contradictory.
I suppose if one LOOKS for contradictions, they can make scripture contradict. I still see no contradiction just a different telling of the same incident told by three different people - Matthew, Mark and John - as they each remembered it.
 

Audie

Veteran Member
I suppose if one LOOKS for contradictions, they can make scripture contradict. I still see no contradiction just a different telling of the same incident told by three different people - Matthew, Mark and John - as they each remembered it.
Key words : " I dont see".

Key compsrison: mother denying her darling boy
caught in a lie with candy in his pocket would
ever lie or steal.
 

rstrats

Active Member
I still see no contradiction just a different telling of the same incident told by three different people - Matthew, Mark and John - as they each remembered it.
So you think that Matthew's memory of Mary knowing that the Messiah was alive, and John's memory of her not knowing that He was alive, is not contradictory. How do you define contradictory?

BTW, any particular reason for leaving Luke out of it?
 
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PureX

Veteran Member
When I was a teenager, Christian apologetics was my thing. I would like to create a thread about contradictions in the Bible. Believers of it often claim it is without contradiction, something I used to tout.
Let’s compile the contradictions, and let’s try to explain them if possible.
I’ll start.
The account of how King Saul died. 1 Samuel 31 says that Saul killed himself, yet immediately after, in 2 Samuel 1 , an amalekite says that he killed Saul.
So context is important, right? On first glance, there are contradictions in the accounts. I read a scholarly commentary book on the books of Samuel, so I’ll relay what i learned from it. The scholar said that amalekites were thematically supposed to represent deceit. The original audience of the text would have understood that the amalekite was lying for personal gain, he did not really kill Saul.
Also, 1 Samuel and 2 Samuel is from the same author. Would it be likely that an author would contradict himself right away?
So that is one contradiction shoddily explained away. :) Let’s bring out all the contradictions!
Let's save a lot of time and just discuss why anyone would expect there NOT to be contradictions in a collection of texts written over a long period of time by a lot of different authors focusing of a lot of different subjects.
 
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